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Indian Navy 10+2 (B Tech) Cadet Entry Scheme 2019 [APPLY NOW]

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INDIAN NAVY 10+2 (B TECH) CADET ENTRY SCHEME 2018 [APPLY NOW]

Indian Navy has published the notification of 10+2 B.Tech Cadet Entry Scheme for the course commencing in January 2020 at Indian Naval Academy. Applications are invited from UNMARRIED MALE CANDIDATES (fulfilling the conditions of nationality as laid down by the Govt. of India) to join the prestigious Indian Naval Academy, Ezhimala, Kerala for a four-year degree course under the 10+2 (B.Tech) Cadet Entry Scheme.

ssbinterviewbook

ELIGIBILITY CONDITIONS:

  • Age: Born between 02 Jul 2000 and 01 Jan 2003 (both dates inclusive).
  • Educational Qualification: Passed Senior Secondary Examination (10+2 Pattern) or its equivalent examinations from any Board with at least 70% aggregate marks in Physics, Chemistry and Mathematics (PCM) and at least 50% marks in English (either in Class X or Class XII).
  • Who can Apply: Candidates who have appeared for JEE (Main) -2019 (for B.E./ B.Tech) exam. Call up for Service Selection Board (SSB) will be issued on the basis of JEE (Main) – 2019 All India Rank.

MEDICAL STANDARDS:

  • All candidates recommended by SSB will have to undergo medicals as per extant regulations. There is no relaxation in medical standard on any ground. Guidelines for physical standards are available on the Indian Navy website www.joinindiannavy.gov.in
  • Relaxations in height is permissible to candidates holding domicile of specific regions details of which are available on the Indian Navy website www.joinindiannavy.gov.in.
  • Guidelines for tattoo are available on the Indian Navy website www.joinindiannavy.gov.in

THE NAVY OFFERS YOU:

  • Promotions: The promotion from Sub Lieutenant to Commander is on time scale basis subject to completion of mandatory courses, sea time and medical condition.
  • Pay and Allowances: The admissible pay and allowances alongwith other facilities & privileges are available on Indian Navy website www.joinindiannavy.gov.in
  • Group Insurance & Gratuity: A basic Insurance cover of Rs. One Crore (on contribution) and gratuity will be granted to the officer as per the latest rules in force.
  • Leave Entitlements: On commission, officers are entitled to annual and casual leave as per extent regulations. Leave during training period will be as per the Training Policy in force.
  • Sports & Adventure: The Navy provides facilities for various sports. In addition, one can also learn and participate in adventure sports such as river rafting, mountaineering, hot air ballooning, hand gliding, wind surfing etc.
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SELECTION PROCEDURE:

  • IHQ of MoD(Navy) reserves the right to fix the cut off for shortlisting of applications for SSB based on JEE (Main) All India Rank- 2019. No communication will be entertained on this account. SSB interviews for short listed candidates will be scheduled at Bangalore / Bhopal / Coimbatore / Visakhapatnam/ Kolkata from Aug – Oct 2019.
  • Shortlisted candidates will be informed about their selection for SSB interview on their E-mail or through SMS as provided by candidates in their application form. You are advised to maintain your mobile number and e-mail ID till selection process is over.
  • SSB interview will be conducted in two stages. Stage I test consists of Intelligence test, Picture Perception test and Group Discussion. Candidates who fail to qualify in Stage I will be routed back on the same day. Stage II test comprises Psychological testing, Group testing and Interview which will last for 04 days. Successful candidates will thereafter undergo Medical Examination (approx duration 03-05 days).
  • Change of SSB venue for interview is not permissible.
  • Any correspondence regarding further change of SSB date is to be addressed to the Call up officer of the concerned SSB. Award of fresh dates for SSB would be subject to availability of batches/slots.
  • No compensation will be paid in respect of any injury sustained as a result of tests.
  • AC 3 tier rail fare is admissible for the SSB interview, if appearing for the first time for particular type of commission on production of tickets. Candidates are required to carry photo copy of the first page of bank passbook or cheque leaf where the name, account No. and IFS Code details are mentioned while appearing for SSB.

TRAINING:

  • The training is scheduled to commence in Jan 2020.
  • Candidates recommended by the SSBs and declared medically fit, will be selected for training in Indian Naval Academy Ezhimala, Kerala, based on All India Merit and number of vacancies. All India Merit will be prepared as per SSB marks. Selected Candidates will be inducted as Cadets for the four year B. Tech Course in applied Electronics & Communication Engineering (for Executive Branch), Mechanical Engineering (for Engineering Branch including Naval Architect specialisation) or Electronics & Communication Engineering (for Electrical Branch) as per Naval requirements. On completion of the course, B.Tech Degree will be awarded by the Jawaharlal Nehru University (JNU).
  • The entire cost of training, including books and reading material, will be borne by the Indian Navy. The cadets will also be provided with free clothing and messing.
ssbinterviewbook

HOW TO APPLY:

  • Candidates are to register and fill application on the recruitment website www.joinindiannavy.gov.in from 31 May to 17 Jun 2019.
  • Whilst filling up the e-application, it is advisable to keep the relevant documents readily available to enable correct filling up of personal particulars.
  • All relevant documents (preferably in original) Date of birth proof (as per 10th/12th certificates), 10th marksheet, 12th marksheet, JEE (Main)-2019 scorecard (indicating All India Rank) and a recent passport size colour photograph should be scanned in original JPG/FITT format, for attaching the same while filling up the application.
  • If any scanned document is not legible / readable for any reason, the application will be rejected.
  • Print one copy of online application form and carry it along with original certificates/documents as mentioned in Para 22 Note (c) while appearing for SSB interview.

Please read the instructions given on the website carefully before finally submitting your online application. Candidates can call on TollFree Number 1800-419-2929 and press option 7 to speak to a customer care representative from Monday-Sunday between 0800-2000 hrs.

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CDS 2 2017 Question Paper Original [SOLVED]

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CDS 2 2017 written exam was conducted by UPSC on 19th Nov 2017, Sunday. Many young defence aspirants attempted this exam to join Indian Army, Navy and Air Force as an officer. Many candidates who have attempted the CDS 2 2017 exam reported that General Knowledge paper was very tough and most of the current affairs questions were from  2016. English paper was easy and Maths was lengthy but average. If you are looking for CDS 2 2017 question paper, you can download them from below. Also, check CDS 2 2017 answer keys here. 

CDS 2 2017 Course

  • IMA 145 Course
  • SSC 108th 20th OTA,
  • 204th Flying Course 
  • Naval Academy.

CDS 2 2017 Question Paper Solved – UPDATED

 

[pdfviewer]https://www.ssbcrack.com/wp-content/uploads/2017/11/CDS-2-2017-Question-Paper-English-PDF.pdf[/pdfviewer]

CDS 2 2017 SET D Question Paper GK

[pdfviewer]https://www.ssbcrack.com/wp-content/uploads/2017/11/CDS-2-2017-Question-Paper-GK-PDF.pdf[/pdfviewer]

CDS 2 2017 SET D Question Paper Maths – Updating

 

CDS 2 2017 SSB Interview Procedure

  • Candidates who will clear the CDS 2 2017 written exam will get a call letter for SSB interview
  • You will get a SSB call based on your preference i.e. IMA, OTA, NA, AFA
  • Even if you clear the exam for more than one preference, you will get only one SSB call based on your top preference
  • You can prepare for SSB interview with these books

 

CDS 2 2017 SET D Answer Keys – English

CDS 2 2017 SET D Answer Keys – Maths

CDS 2 2017 SET D Question Paper English

 

 

CDS 2 2017 English Questions 

Directions :

In this section, you have few short passages. After each passage, you will find some items based on the passage. First, read a passage and answer the items based on it. You are required to select your answers based on the contents of the passage and opinion of the author only.

Passage

For many years, ship captains navigating the waters of Antarctica have been intrigued by sightings of emerald icebergs. Scientists have now explained their mystery. Their icebergs are turned upside down. Icebergs are blocks of ice that have broken off huge slabs of frozen snow called ice shelves. Their green appearance results from seawater that has frozen at the bottom over hundreds of years. The frozen sea water has dissolved organic matter which gives it a yellow tone and the fresh water ‘ice shelf’ above has a blue tinge. When the iceberg turns upside done, it appears green through the visual mix of yellow with the blue from below.

1)  What is the meaning of ‘intrigued’?

(a) Surprised

(b) Fascinated

(c) Muffled

(d) Repulsed

 

2) What are ice shelves?

(a) They are huge pieces of chunks of ice

(b) They are frozen sea water

(c) They are pieces of ice which look like shelves

(d) They are huge pieces of ice which are very old

 

3) What are icebergs?

(a) Huge chunks of ice floating on water

(b) Frozen sea water

(c) Green ice

(d) Green yellow water below and blue above

 

4) When the iceberg turns upside down, it appears

(a) green

(b) yellow

(c) blue

(d) white

 

Passage

In its simple form, science has helped man to protect himself from Nature and to overcome natural obstacles to movement. But with the advance of science, a situation has arisen in which Nature need to be protected from man. He has used Nature’s own gifts, not only of metal but even the human brain, to attack Nature. Forests are being destroyed not only to satisfy the need but to provide luxuries. The evil effects of deforestation are already making themselves clearly felt by climatic changes and soil erosion. Man has at last begun to learn that he has to protect if he wants Nature to protect him

 

5) The use of science in its simple form has helped man to

(a) do such things as building shelter and make carts, boats, etc.

(b) make bombs and missiles

(c) build factories using machinery

(d) make planes

 

6) Nature now needs to be protected from man because

(a) nature has become weak

(b) man is rapidly destroying Nature

(c) man is cruel to animals

(d) man has become irrational

 

7) Forests are being destroyed in order to

(a) provide land for agriculture

(b) provide wood for fuel

(c) kill dangerous animals

(d) provide necessities as well as needless comforts and pleasures

 

8) The evil effect of destroying Nature instead of using it is seen in

(a) the fall in production of our factories

(b) the fall in our standard of living

(c) the unfavorable changes in climate

(d) the frequent occurrence of epidemics

 

9) Climatic changes and soil erosion are results of

(a) scientific developments

(b) nuclear explosion

(c) natural calamity

(d) deforestation

Passage

According to the civil laws of most countries, obedience is no longer the duty of a wife, every woman has the political right to vote, but these liberties remain theoretical as long as she does not have economic freedom. A woman supported by a man is not liberated from the male. It is through gainful employment that woman has traveled most of the distance that separated her from the male, and nothing else can guarantee her liberty in practice.

I once heard a maidservant declare, while cleaning the stone floor of a hotel lobby, “I never asked anybody for anything; I succeeded all by myself.” She was as proud of her self-sufficiency as a Rockefeller, Ford or Birla.

However, the mere combination of the right to vote and a job does not mean complete liberation: working, today, is not a liberty.

A recent study of women workers in a car factory shows that they would prefer to stay in the home rather than work in the factory. The majority of women do not escape from the traditional feminine world. Their jobs at the factory do not relieve them of housekeeping burdens; they get from neither society nor their husbands, the assistance they need to become in concrete fact the equals of men.

 

10) Which of the following helps women

(a) The right to vote

(b) Civil liberties

(c) A job

(d) Wealthy husbands

 

11) Why does the writer talk about the maidservant in the hotel lobby?

(a) The servants of today will one day be freed from their rich masters

(b) A servant can become as rich as Rockefeller or Birla

(c) Even with a low paid job women can achieve equality

(d) Economic independence is necessary for women’s liberation

 

12) In which paragraph does the writer say that it is revealed that some woman would not like to work in the factory?

(a) In paragraph four

(b) In paragraph three

(c) I paragraph two

(d) In paragraph one

 

13) “These liberties” in the first paragraph refer to

(a) The right to vote , not to obey and right to a job

(b) The right to vote and not to obey

(c) The rights of servants to disobey their master and the right of the master to punish them

(d) Women’s right to vote and earn money

 

Passage

During the past three generations, the diseases affecting western societies have undergone dramatic changes. Polio, diphtheria, tuberculosis, commonly known as TB, are vanishing; one injection of an antibiotic often cures deadly diseases such as pneumonia or syphilis, and so many mass killers have come under control that two-thirds of all death is now associated with the diseases of old age. Those who die young are more often than not victims of accidents, violence, or suicide.

These changes in health status are generally equated with the decrease in suffering and attributed to more or better medical care. Almost everyone believes that at least one of his friends would not be alive and well except for the skill of a doctor. But there is, in fact, no evidence of any direct relationship between this change in the pattern or nature of sickness on the one hand and the so-called progress of medicine on the other hand. These changes are the results of political technological changes. They are not related to the activities that require the preparation and status of doctors or the costly equipment in which doctors take pride. In addition, an increase in the number of new diseases in the last fifteen years are themselves the result of medical intervention. They are doctor-made or iatrogenic.

 

14) In the western societies, the occurrences of polio, diphtheria, and tuberculosis has

(a) increased

(b) completely stopped

(c) decreased

(d) continued without changes

 

15) More death are now associated with old age than in the past because

(a) iatrogenic diseases are spreading faster now

(b) deadly diseases affecting the young have been well controlled

(c) Accidents, violence and suicide that killed many youths in the past are now under control

(d) political and technological changes now take better care of the young than the old

 

16) The writer probably is arguing for

(a) stopping the practice of western medicines completely

(b) stopping the use of costly equipment and medicines

(c) rethinking about the successes and failures of the western medicines

(d) giving greater attention to new, iatrogenic diseases than to the old diseases such as polio , diphtheria and pneumonia

Passage

Poverty is a complex problem. It is far more than an economic condition. We measure it usually in terms of income but forget that poverty embraces a whole range of circumstances, including lack of access to information and to basic services like nutritional diet, health care, and education. It results in a loss of cultural identity and destroys traditional knowledge. Poor people become marginalized and suffer from exploitation and loss of human dignity.

 

17) Which of the following sentences comes close to the meaning of the sentence, “Poverty embraces a whole range of circumstances.”

(a) There are lot of angles to poverty

(b) There are several section in the society which are poor

(c) There are several types of poverty

(d) Poverty is solely an economic issue

 

18) What way do you think ‘lack of access to information’ affects poor people?

(a) They don’t get information about how to improve their conditions

(b) They didn’t get newspapers to read at all

(c) They can’t go to school and read books

(d) They don’t get information about schemes of getting ric

 

19) What do you think ‘cultural identity’ is important?

(a) A sense of cultural identity gives people self-respect and confidence

(b) Cultural identity defines the character of poor people

(c) It is important to have cultural identity to get jobs

(d) It is useful to have cultural identity because it brings your success

 

20) Which of the following sentences comes closest to the sentence” Poor people become marginalised”?

(a) They are not given any benefit of nay government schemes

(b) They are ignored by the rich people

(c) They are the most ignored elements of the society

(d) They are the most disposed elements of the society

 

21) What do you think is the tone of the passage?

(a) Objective but querulous

(b) Descriptive and impassioned

(c) Argumentative and critical

(d) Objective and critical

ORDERING OF WORDS IN A SENTENCE

 

Directions :

Each of the following items in this section consists of a sentence the parts of which have been jumbled. These parts have been labeled P, Q, R, and S. Given below each sentence are four sequences namely (a), (b), (c) and (d). You are required to re-arrange the jumbled parts of the sentence and mark your response accordingly.

22) My unmarried aunt     is creating a lot of problems for us     who stays with us

                                                                                 P                                          Q

because of her interfering nature in our personal lives

                                               R

and there is a misunderstanding among family members

                                              S

The correct sequence should be

(a) Q S R P

(b) Q P S R

(c) P Q S R

(d) S P Q R

 

23) No criminal proceeding      in any Court during his term of office

                                                                                        P

whatsoever shall be initiated     or continued against the President    or a Governor

                      Q                                                              R                                              S

The correct sequence should be

(a) Q R S P

(b) P Q R S

(c) Q P S R

(d) S Q P R

 

24) The dentist    with a severe tooth-ache     when he was brought to hospital

                                                   P                                                       Q

  extracted Manish’s tooth                      and relieved his pain

                      R                                                              S

The correct sequence should be

(a) P Q R S

(b) Q P R S

(c) R S P Q

(d) R Q P S

 

25) The actress   has been selected     as the best heroine

                                            P                                  Q

who is the daughter of a famous male singer       of the year

                                       R                                                       S

The correct sequence should be

(a)  R  P   Q  S

(b)  Q  P  S  R

(c)   Q   S   R  Q

(d)   Q   S   R   P

 

26) Last summer   everyday     kept pestering a pretty girl     one persistent admirer     

                                         P                                  Q                                               R

with phone calls

               S

The correct sequence should be

(a) Q R S P

(b) R S Q P

(c) R Q S P

(d) P Q R S

 

 

 

27) In many cultures      to make wishes come true    that blue has the power    people believe

                                                                 P                                                Q                                     R

and be successful in life

                     S

The correct sequence should be

(a) P S R Q

(b) R S P Q

(c) R Q P S

(d) S Q P R

 

28) From a picnic table    through the playground   while we unpacked a basket

                                                                 P                                             Q

we watched them laugh and leap      bulging with sandwhiches and cookies

                           R                                                                      S

The correct sequence should b

 

(a)   R S Q P

(b) Q  P  R  S

(c) R P Q S

(d) Q S R P

 

 

29) My father retired at the age of 68,  where he had served,   in South Carolina

                                                                                        P                                      Q

as Pastor for 12 years,   from a Baptist Church

                     R                                  S

The correct sequence should be

(a) P R S Q

(b) S Q P R

(c) S P Q R

(d) Q P R S

 

30) The completion      it enables employees to feel a sense of accomplishment

                                                                                  P

and makes them take pride in their work;       of high quality products

                              Q                                                                      R

also enhances employee satisfaction, because

                              S

The correct sequence should b

(a)  P Q R S

(b)  R Q P S

(c)  P S R Q

(d) R S P Q

 

31) But, Kuala Lumpur     where modern Malaya executives    but will never miss Friday prayers

                                                                         P                                                                 Q

might have a cellular phone in hand,   is a city firmly rooted in tradition

                             R                                                                    S

The correct sequence should be

(a)  R Q S P

(b)  S P R Q

(c) R P S Q

(d) S Q R P

 

32) Perhaps the most significant factor     is a failure of planning and

                                                                                                   P

in the growth of all metropolitan crimes,    governance in the urban sprawl

                             Q                                                                  R

including crimes against the elderly,

                             S

The correct sequence should be

(a)   Q  S   P  R

(b)   P  R  Q  S

(c)   Q   R   P  S

(d)   P  S  Q  R

 

33) He said that    a small college    he’d rather go to    not studying at all   instead of

                                         P                              Q                                R                            S

The correct sequence should be

(a) Q  S  P  R

(b) P   R  Q  S

(c) Q  P  R  S

(d) Q  P  S  R

 

34) Teaching a child    since there  are few    is becoming  difficult  and expensive

                                                         P                                                  Q

open ponds around    how to swim

             R                                  S

The correct sequence should be

 

(a) S   Q   P  R

(b) Q   R   S  P

(c)  S  R  Q  P

(d) P   R  Q  S

 

35) The doctor  able to find out   what had caused   the food poisoning   had not been

P                              Q                                  R                             S

The correct sequence should be

(a) S  P  R  Q

(b) P  R  Q  S

(c) P  R  S  Q

(d) S  P  Q  R

 

36) The officer      was suspended    being corrupt   from service     before his dismissal

                                            P                           Q                          R                              S

The correct sequence should be

(a)  Q  P  S  R

(b)   Q  P  R  S

(c)  R  S  Q  P

(d) R  S  P  Q

 

37) She gave     her old coat      to  a  beggar         the one with the brown fur on it      shivering with cold

                                     P                        Q                                                  R                                              S

The correct sequence should be

(a) P  R   Q  S

(b) S  Q  P  R

(c) P  Q  R  S

(d) R  P  Q  S

 

38) The medical teams   at the ground said that the injured    by the surging crowds,

                                                                         P                                                    Q

included women and children     who were trampled

                         R                                             S

The correct sequence should be

(a) P R Q S

(b) P Q R S

(c) Q P R S

(d) P S Q R

 

39) He at the hurdles on his way    who has his eyes    does not look     fixed  on the goal

                            P                                             Q                              R                            S

The correct sequence should be

(a) P  Q  R  S

(b) S  R  P  Q

(c) Q  S  R  P

(d) R  Q  P  S

 

40) We do not know when   but we know    the exact date of his death    for certain

                                                             P                                     Q                                   R

Shakespeare was born

               S

The correct sequence should be

(a)  S  P   R  Q

(b) P   Q  R  S

(c) P  S  Q  R

(d) S  R  Q  P

 

41) The purpose is to advance knowledge   the two have to work together   and disseminate it

                                  P                                                                  Q                                            R

at university  is essentially a community of students and teachers

                                                             S

The correct sequence should be

(a) S  R  Q  P

(b) S  P  Q  R

(c) P  Q  R  S

(d) S  Q  P  R

 

WORD SUBSTITUTION

Directions :

For the expression which has been underlined in each of the following sentences, choose the response (a), (b), (c) or (d) which most nearly expresses its meaning.

 

42) The institution decided to given Mrs. Roy’s job to her son not because she was a social worker, but because she had died in harness.

(a) died after retirement

(b) died before retirement

(c) died while riding a horse

(d) died for a great cause

 

43) Your ambition should be in consonance with your capabilities

(a) parallel to

(b) in accordance with

(c) in harmony with

(d) in tune with

 

44) I could not go up in life for want of proper guidance

(a) for lack of

(b) for need of

(c) for the desire of

(d) for the necessity of

 

45) Though he was arrogant , I could not dispense with his services.

(a) terminate

(b) align with

(c) claim

(d) disregard with

 

46) In spite of his work, he was made a scapegoat for the failure of the project.

(a) freed from any responsibility for

(b) suspected of causing

(c) blamed without reason for

(d) was severely punished for

 

47) If food supply fails to keep pace with population , civilization will collapse

(a) to grow along with

(b) to walk side by side

(c) to gain momentum

(d) to move at the same speed as

 

ANTONYMS

Directions :

Each item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word followed by four words. Select the word that is opposite in meaning to the underlined word and mark your response in your Answer Sheet accordingly.

48) Whether the rewards are in commensurate with the efforts or not, a society will always have workaholics and the shirk work groups.

(a) disproportionate

(b) equal to

(c) matched

(d) unparalleled

 

49) Wars leave behind a large number of emaciated soldiers in the camps of both the victorious and the vanquished

(a) hefty

(b) thin

(c) disillusioned

(d) determined

 

50) There was a mammoth gathering to listen to the leader.

(a) negligible

(b) tiny

(c) poor

(d) large

 

51) The audience thoroughly enjoyed the hilarious drama

(a) amusing

(b) delightful

(c) serious

(d) momentous

 

52) The writer’s erudition in science is revealed in every page of the book.

(a) unenlightened

(b) ignorance

(c) intelligence

(d) hollowness

 

53) The seminar which Ravi organised proved to be momentous event.

(a) trivial

(b) futile

(c) vain

(d) useless

 

54) The question is not whether the court vindicates him with regard to his involvement in the case, but how he feels about it.

(a) reprieves

(b) absolves

(c) indicts

(d) summons

 

55) In those days many monarchs enjoyed vast ecclesiastical powers

(a) permanent

(b) temporal

(c) contemporary

(d) constitutional

 

FILL IN THE BLANK

Directions :

Each of the following sentences in this section has a blank space and four words or group of words given after the sentence. Select which ever word or group of words yo consider most appropriate for the bank space and indicate your response on the Answer Sheet accordingly.

56) With the less rapid expansion of the economy, we should make ______ progress toward stable price levels.

(a) detailed

(b) substantial

(c) definite

(d) infinite

 

57) At times he gets very angry, and then no one can ______ him

(a) prevent

(b) humour

(c) mollify

(d) satisfy

 

58) Many people today have fallen into utter confusion of values with the result that they cannot ______ the good from the bad

(a) divide

(b) differentiate

(c) see

(d) alter

 

59) If Mohan ______ at 5 a.m., he would not have missed the train

(a) started

(b) had started

(c) would start

(d) has started

 

60) His property was divided ______ his daughters and sons.

(a) between

(b) among

(c) from

(d) with

 

61) His persistence in his misdemeanours has lowered him in the ______ of everyone who knows him.

(a) eyes

(b) estimation

(c) estimate

(d) esteern

 

62) The clouds of suspicion will clear ______ soon

(a) up

(b) away

(c) off

(d) by

 

63) The teachers said that they were no longer prepared to ______ the ways of the new Headmaster.

(a) put over with

(b) put on with

(c) put up with

(d) put up to

 

64) ______ the construction of new housing units at the rate of one every month, there is still a shortage of accomodation

(a) Through

(b) Despite

(c) By

(d) For

 

65) Democracy requires the equal right of all to the development of such capacity for good as nature has ______ them with

(a) presented

(b) endowed

(c) fortified

(d) replenished

 

ORDERING OF SENTENCES

Directions :

In this section each item consists of six sentences of a passage. The first and sixth sentences are given in the beginning as S1 and S6 . The middle for sentences in each have been jumbled up and labelled P, Q, R and S. You are required to find the proper sequence of the four sentences and mark your response accordingly on the Answer Sheet.

66) S1 : Egypt lies in the north- east corner of Africa.

S6 : The whole country depends on the water of the Niles

P : Most of it is desert or semi – desert

Q : It has very little rainfall

R : It is four times as big as Great Britain in size.

S : Only a twenty-fifth of the total area is cultivable.

The correct sequence should be

(a) P Q  R S

(b) S R P Q

(c) R P S Q

(d) Q P R S

 

67)  S1  : In mechanical efforts , you improve by perpetual practice.

S6 : There is neither excuse nor temptation for the latter.

P : He cannot go on shooting wide or falling short, and still fancy that he is making progress.

Q : This is so because the object to be attained is a matter of actual experiment in which you either succeed or fail

R : He must either correct his aim, or persevere in his error with his eyes open

S : If a man aims at a mark with bow and arrow, he must either hit it or aim it.

The correct sequence should be

(a)  P S Q R

(b) R P S Q

(c) S Q R P

(d) Q S P R

 

68)  S1 : Isaac’s mother married again

S6 : He had a set of little tools and saw of various sizes made by himself.

P : But he was known to be very clever at making things.

Q : She sent him to school.

R : Isaac was left to the care of his good old grandmother.

S : In his early years Isaac did not appear to be a very bright student.

The correct sequence should be

(a) R  Q  S P

(b) Q  R  S  P

(c) S  Q  R  P

(d) R  P  Q  S

 

69) S1 : The examination system must be regarded as the chief wrecker of young nerves.

S6 : If I become a Vice-Chancellor, my first act would be to abolish all examination in my university

P : It makes me jump out of the bed, all in a sweat.

Q : It does this by building up a tension, for a part of the year, all through one’s youth.

R : And after four decades, the same nervousness sometimes recurs to me in nightmares

S : I remember the desperate nervousness that used to grip me from January to April every year.

The correct sequence should be

(a) R P Q S

(b) R S P Q

(c) R Q P S

(d) Q S R P

 

70) S1 : History is a subject that is so little valued today that it is almost impossible to win world fame as a historian ; yet that is exactly what Toynbee was able to.

S6 : Among the civilizations that he studied was that of India.

P : We usually think of history as a chronological account of the development of various states and empires under ruler.

Q : Toynbee’s view of history was different

R : He tries to find the pattern behind the birth, growth and decay of civilization.

S : Though he used the recorded history of mankind, but he was interested not merely in the chronology of single states or group but in the rise and fall of whole civilizations.

The correct sequence should be

(a) P  S  Q  R

(b) Q  S  P  R

(c) S  Q  R  P

(d) P  Q  S  R

 

71)  SI  : Science first began to become important after A.D. 1500

S6 : Men read them, became inquisitive again, and began to want to find things out.

P : As a result of this , books came to be circulated.

Q : During the Middle Ages the coming of Science was hindered by the Church

R : In the middle of the fifteenth century , however , the Turks captured the city of Constantinople and the Greek books were scattered far and wide.

S : It considered free inquiry into the nature of things to be wicked.

The correct sequence should be

(a) P  Q  S  R

(b) Q  S  R  P

(c) S  R  P  Q

(d) R  P  Q  S

 

72) S1 : Phatik was a mischievous boy of fourteen

S6 : Ultimately he distinguished himself as a scholar.

P : It was then that Phatik’s uncle offered to take the boy to Kolkata.

Q : She was much worried about his education

R : His mother found it difficult to bring him up.

S : Away from his home Phatik became sober and industrious

The correct sequence should be

(a) P Q R S

(b) S R Q P

(c) R S P Q

(d) R Q P S

73) S1 : Whenever I met Baba Amte I was reminded of an anecdote my grandmother used to tell me

S6 : He forgot that he had made it.

P : He once made an idol of God

Q : As the idol was nearing completion, the sculptor was becoming more and more withdrawn into himself.

S : There was a great sculpto.

The correct sequence should be

(a) P Q R S

(b) S R P Q

(c) S P Q R

(d) Q P R S

 

74) S1 : Ross sent an account of his work, together with slide and specimens to Manson.

S6 : Ross was elected a fellow of the Royal Society in1901

P : They produced a profound sensation

Q : In July 1898, Manson described Ross’s results to the British Medical Association.

R : The President of the Royal Society came to Manson’s house and inspected Ross’s materials and said that ‘it was of remarkable interest and value’.

S : When Manson had finished, the whole audience rose and cheered.

(a) R S P Q

(b) P S R Q

(c) Q P S R

(d) S P Q R

 

75) S1  : Civilization dawned when early man learnt how to produce heat and energy by burning wood.

S6 : When they have been used, they cannot be replaced.

P : Then steam was used to produce electricity.

Q : In this century great use has been made of oil and natural gas and the use of atomic reactors also has provided another source of energy.

R : Much later, the first industrial revolution was based on the production of steam by burning coal.

S : But none of these fuels is renewable

The correct sequence should be

(a) P R Q S

(b) R Q S P

(c) R P Q S

(d) R P S Q

 

76) S1 : Ghost is a subject which baffles everyone everywhere throughout  the world.

S6 : Yet it is a subject which has held people spellbound and the belief in them continues to flourish

P : But human beings have always been curious to know more about them.

Q : Needless to say, such attempts have proved to be useless

R : There have been attempts even to photograph these creatures of darkness.

S : Even after the advancement of science, the reality of ghosts remains a mystery till this day.

The correct sequence should be

(a) Q  R  P  S

(b) S  Q  P  R

(c) S  P  R  Q

(d) S  Q  R  P

 

77) S1 : There have been two schools of thought which deal with the errors of learners.

S6 : Both views are popular today but the second is gaining ground fast.

P : The philosophy of the second school is that errors are natural and they will occur in any learning

Q : So errors, they say, is a sign of faulty teaching methods.

R : The first school maintains that if teaching methods are perfect, errors will never occur.

S : They argue that we should concentrate on how to deal with errors, instead of on method of teaching

The correct sequence should be

(a)  Q S R P

(b) P S Q R

(c) Q P S R

(d) R Q P S

 

78) S1 : Down the stair way of the Holiday Inn hotel, I enter the conference hall.

S6 : Some are leaning against the sidewall

P : I take a seat in the back row as more chairs are quietly slipped in for late corners

Q : The hall is already packed with delegates.

R : Still quite a few people are left standing

S : Most of the delegates are executives of Indian or Indo-US companies

The correct sequence should be

(a) S Q  R P

(b) P R Q S

(c) S R Q P

(d) Q S P R

 

79) S1 : A sportsman is noted for his sense of discipline

S6 : Once discipline is accrued in the play field, it can be applied and practised in other spheres of life

P : The first lesson in discipline is to win without pride and to lose without bitterness

Q : One is no longer swayed by the sudden gusts of passion

R : Then, one must learn that error or selfishness will disgrace and endanger the rest.

S : A sense of equanimity brings order and method into the life of the people.

The correct sequence should be

(a) Q P R S

(b) R P S P

(c) P Q S R

(d) P R S Q

 

80) S1 : Mr. and Mrs. Robert went home late last night

S6 : Mr. Robert rushed to the police station immediately

P : Somebody had broken open the lock

Q : To their dismay they found all their things missing.

R : They got into the house with a lot of fear

S : When they reached home they found the front door open

The correct sequence should be

(a) R S P Q

(b) S P R Q

(c) Q S R P

(d) R Q P S

 

81) S1 : The miseries of the world cannot be cured by physical help only

S6 : Then alone will misery ease in the world.

P : Let men have light, let them be strong and educated

Q : No amount of physical help will remove them completely

R : Until man’s nature changes, his physical needs will always rise, and miseries will always be felt.

S : The only solution is to make mankind enlightened.

The correct sequence should be

(a) Q P R S

(b) R Q S P

(c) S P Q R

(d) P Q R S

 

82) S1 : Aristotle worked under limitations

S6 : The age was not a period of experiment

P : Physical events were mostly attributed to the intervention of God.

Q : There had been little industrial invention in Greece, perhaps because slave labour was cheap and plentiful

R : The only equipment he had for his study was a ruler and compass and some crude instruments.

S : The facts on which modern theories of science have been based had not been discovered.

The correct sequence should be

(a) R P Q S

(b) R S P Q

(c) Q S R P

(d) S Q R P

 

83) S1 : The bus sped along the road

S6 : The dog wailed for a long time

P : But the bus could stop only after covering a few yards.

Q : It injured the dog in the leg.

R : The driver applied the brake

S : Suddenly a stray dog ran on to the middle of the road

The correct sequence should be

(a) S P R Q

(b) S R P Q

(c) R P Q S

(d) P R S Q

 

84) S1 : The status of women in our country is, on the whole , far from high

S6 : Education can lift women out of the depths of misery and ignorance into which they have sunk.

P : But the plight of women in villages is still miserable

Q : The educated women in cities enjoy equality with the men folk.

R : The movement for the freedom and right of women has certainly been steadily gaining momentum.

S : Their education has been thoroughly neglected.

The correct sequence should be

(a) R P Q S

(b) R Q P S

(c) S Q P R

(d) S P Q R

 

85) S1 : Hieun-tsang became a Buddhist monk at the age of twelve and soon discovered that the Buddhist texts available in China were insufficient.

S6 : But he was on a quest and returned after a while to his motherland with a rich collection of texts, documents and relics

P : Wherever he went, he was asked by the local rulers and monks to stay in the place.

Q : He entered India through Kashmir, where he spent some time in Srinagar

R : He therefore decided to go on a pilgrimage to India to collect further material

S : From India, he attempted to go to Ceylon, but gave up the attempt.

The correct sequence should be

(a) P Q S R

(b) R S P Q

(c) Q S R P

(d) R Q S P

SPOTTING ERRORS

Directions :

Each item in this section with three underlined parts labelled (a) , (b) and (c) . Read each sentence to find out whether there is any error in any underlined part and indicate your response  in the Answer Sheet against the corresponding letter i.e., (a) or (b) or (c) . If you find no error, your response should be indicated as (d).

96) It is identification with the audience

                                    (a)

that makes one come home from the play so much more

                                              (b)

satisfied than one ever is after merely passive enjoyment of the show    No error

                                                     (c)                                                                                                 (d)

 

97) CV Raman was one of the greatest sons of India         who has earned everlasting fame

                                           (a)                                                                                  (b)

for scientific researches                          No error

                  (c)                                                   (d)

 

98) This box    is heavy than    the other one     No error

            (a)                  (b)                   (c)                        (d)

 

99) The      writer does not have the freedom      to choose his own themes,

                                          (a)                                                             (b)

society thrusts  them on him                  No error

                    (c)                                                 (d)

 

100) No one knows   as to why he did it,  or who was behind his doing it   No error

                 (a)                           (b)                                           (c)                                     (d)

 

101) How long   you  are     in this profession ?    No error

               (a)             (b)                     (c)                            (d)

 

102) I know that    ignorance is not bliss     yet I am ignorant in many things.    No error

               (a)                           (b)                                                     (c)                                       (d)

 

103) You are     just sixteen years old,     isn’t it ?    No error

              (a)                       (b)                             (c)               (d)

 

104) The old widower,     living in remittances from his sons,    could not make both ends meet    

                  (a)                                                (b)                                                                   (c)

No error

   (d)

 

105) Debate about biotechnology and genetic engineering    is under way around the world,

                                                        (a)                                                                       (b)

and India is fully engrossed with the discussion.     No error

                                      (c)                                                                    (d)

 

106) I like to     listen the song of the nightingale     in the evening    No error

             (a)                                     (b)                                           (c)                    (d)

 

107) Each student      from amongst the hundred students in the class     want to watch this movie

               (a)                                                             (b)                                                               (c)

No error

     (d)

 

108) Although there is virtually no production in India,    the Encyclopaedia Britannica estimate

                                                   (a)                                                                                  (b)

that India has perhaps the largest accumulated stocks of silver in the world    No error

                                                      (c)                                                                                       (d)

109) We have to reach    there at ten   will you please walk little faster   No error

                      (a)                          (b)                                      (c)                                       (d)

 

110) It is almost difficult,      in case impossible,      to keep awake late after dinner.   No error

                     (a)                                       (b)                                                 (c)                                 (d)

 

111) What most students need, above all else    is practice in writing     

                                        (a)                                                      (b)                                

and particularly in writing things that matter to them.       No error

                                        (c)                                                                   (d)

 

112) She was out of the mind,    when she made that plan to go abroad

                          (a)                                                           (b)

without taking into consideration her present family position.    No error

                                             (c)                                                                        (d)

 

113) Are you    through with    that newspaper?    No errror

            (a)                (b)                            (c)                        (d)

 

114) My college    is besides    the lake      No error

                (a)                 (b)             (c)                  (d)

 

115) The Department of Fine Arts has been criticised     for not having much required courses

                                                       (a)                                                                        (b)

Scheduled for this semester.       No errror

                      (c)                                    (d)

 

116) If you have thought about the alternatives,     you would not have chosen

                                         (a)                                                                       (b)

such a difficult topic for the term paper.   No error

                               (c)                                             (d)

 

117) The duties of the secretary are     to take the minutes, mailing the correspondence,

                                (a)                                                                      (b)

and calling the members before meeting.    No error

                               (c)                                                (d)

 

118) If I was you,     I would not go to film       in my mother’s absence.    No error

               (a)                                (b)                                         (c)                                 (d)

 

119) Those of us who have a family history of heart disease     should make a yearly appointment

                                                     (a)                                                                                (b)

with their doctors      No error

          (c)                             (d)

 

120) The old furniture’s     was disposed of     and the new ones were placed .   No error

                       (a)                                (b)                                           (c)                                  (d)

 

CDS 2 2017 GK Questions

 

 

1) A person is standing on a frictionless horizontal ground. How can he move by a certain distance on this ground?

(a) By sneezing

(b) By jumping

(c) By running

(d) By rolling

 

2) In the reaction between hydrogen sulphate ion and water

HSO4–  +  H2O → H3O + SO42-

the water acts as

(a) an acid

(b) a base

(c) a salt

(d) an inert medium

 

3) How many hydrogen atoms are contained in 1.50 g of glucose (C6H12O6)?

(a) 3.01 x 1022

(b) 1.20 x 1023

(c) 2.40 x 1023

 

4) The paste of a white material in water is used to maintain a fractured bone fixed in place. The white material used is called.

(a) bleaching powder

(b) plaster of Paris

(c) powder of zinc oxide

(d) lime powder

 

5) Which one of the following types of glasses is used for making optical instruments?

(a) Pyrex glass

(b) Soft glass

(c) Hard glass

(d) Flint glass

 

6) Most ozone gas (about 90%) is located in the atmospheric layer of

(a) ionosphere

(b) troposphere

(c) stratosphere

(d) mesosphere

 

7) What are the main constituents of biogas?

(a) Methane and sulphur dioxide

(b) Methane and carbon dioxide

(c) Methane , hydrogen and nitric oxide

(d) Methane and nitric oxide

 

8) In which two Indian States of the four mentioned below, it is necessary to hold certain minimum educational qualifications to be eligible to contest Panchayat Elections?

  1. Punjab
  2. Haryana
  3. Karnakata
  4. Rajastahan

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 and 2

(b) 2 and 4

(c) 2 and 3

(d) 1 and 4

 

9) Which of the following statements about ‘delegation’ is/are correct?

  1. It is the abdication of responsibility.
  2. It means conferring of specified authority by a lower authority to a higher one.
  3. It is subject to supervision and review.
  4. It is a method of dividing authority in the organization.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 3 only

(b) 2 and 4 only

(c) 3 and 4

(d) 1, 2 and 4

 

10) Which of the following features were borrowed by the Constitution of India from the British Constitution?

  1. Rule of Law
  2. Law making Procedure
  3. Independence of Judiciary
  4. Parliamentary

Select the correct answer using the code given below

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2, 3 and 4

(c) 1 and 4 only

(d) 1, 2 and 4

 

11) Which one of the following Schedules of the Constitution of India has fixed the number of Members of the Rajya Sabha to be elected from each State?

(a) Fifth Schedule

(b) Third Schedule

(c) Sixth Schedule

(d) Fourth Schedule

 

12) Which one of the following statements about various horticulture crops of India for the year 2016 – 17 is not correct?

(a) The area under horticulture crops has increased over previous year

(b) Fruit production during the current year is higher than the previous year

(c) Rate of increase in onion production is more than potato production in the current year in comparison to the previous year

(d) The major tomato-growing States are Madhya Pradesh, Andhra Pradesh , Karnataka, Odisha and Gujarat.

 

13) The phenomenon of ‘demographic dividend’ of a country relates to

(a) a sharp decline in total population

(b) an increase in working age population

(c) a decline in infant mortality rate

(d) an increase in sex ratio

 

14) Arrange the following events in sequential order as they happened in India :

  1. Mahalanobis Model
  2. Plan Holiday
  3. Rolling Plan

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1, 2, 3

(b) 3, 2, 1

(c) 2, 3, 1

(d) 1, 3, 2

 

15) The monetary policy in India uses which of the following tools?

  1. Bank rate
  2. Open market operations
  3. Public debt
  4. Public revenue

Select the correct answer using the code given below

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 4 only

(d) 1, 2 , 3 and 4

 

16) Devaluation of currency will be more beneficial if prices of

(a) domestic goods remain constant

(b) exports become cheaper to importers

(c) imports remain constant

(d) exports rise proportionality

 

 

Directions :

The following five (5) items consist of two statements , Statement 1 and Statement II , Examine these two statements carefully and select the correct answer using the code given below.

Code :

  1. a) Both the statements are individually true and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I.
  2. b) Both the statements are individually true but Statement II is not the correct explanation of Statement I
  3. c) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
  4. d) Statement I is false but Statement II is true.

 

17) Statement I :

Skin cancer is generally caused by the ultraviolet radiation.

Statement II :

Stratosphere allows ultraviolet radiation to enter the earth from the sun.

Answer B 

  1. b) Both the statements are individually true but Statement II is not the correct explanation of Statement I

 

18) Statement I :

The interior part of Maharashtra does not receive adequate rain in the summer season.

Statement II :

The interior part of Maharashtra lies in the rain shadow of the Western Ghats.

Answer A: Both the statements are individually true and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I.

 

19) Statement I :

Global warming signifies the rise in global surface temperature.

Statement II :

The increase of concentration of greenhouse gases in the atmosphere causes the rise in global surface temperature.

Answer A: Both the statements are individually true and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I.

20) Statement I :

The Communists left the All India Trade Union Congress in 1931.

Statement II :

By 1928, the Communists were no longer working with the mainstream national movement.

 

21) Statement I :

The early Aryans, who were essentially pastoral, did not develop any political structure which could measure up to a State in either ancient or modern sense.

Statement II :

Kingship was the same as tribal chief ship; the term Rajan being used for tribal chief who was primarily a military leader and who ruled over his people and not over any specified area.

Answer A: Both the statements are individually true and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I.

 

22) Which one of the following peasant struggles was an outcome of British opium policy ?

(a)  Phulaguri Dhawa [1861]

(b)  Birsaite Ulgulan [1899- 1900]

(c)  Pabna Revolt [1873]

(d)  Maratha Peasant Uprising [1875]

 

23) Which one of the following statements about the Sayyid brothers during the period of Later Mughals is not true ?

(a)  They brought Jahandar Shah to power

(b)  They wielded administrative power.

(c)  They followed a tolerant religious policy.

(d)  They reached an agreement with King Shahu.

 

24) Which of the following statements with regard to the heterodox sect between sixth and fourth century BC are correct ?

  1. The jain ideals were already being circulated in the seventh century BC by Parshava.
  2. Although Buddhism, and to a lesser extent Jainism, took account of the changes in material life and reacted against orthodoxy, neither of these sought to abolish the caste system.
  3. The first female disciple of Mahavira is said to have been a captured slave woman.
  4. Buddha held that nuns could attain spiritual liberation just like a monk and granted them an equal status in the mendicant order.

Select the correct answer using the code given below :

(a)  1, 2, 3, and 4

(b)  1, 2 and 3 only

(c)  1, 2 and 4 only

(d)  3 and 4 only

 

25) Which one of the following combinations of year and event concerning the French Revolution is correctly matched ?

(a) 1789 : Napoleonic Code

(b)  1791 : Tennis Court Oath

(c)  1792 : National Convention

(d)  1804 : New Constitution of France.

 

26) Who among the following is the author of the book, The Social Contract ?

(a)  Voltaire

(b)  Hobbes

(c)  Locke

(d)  Rousseau

 

27) Who among the following is the recipient of the Jnanpith Award, 2016 ?

(a)  Shankha Ghosh

(b)  Raghuveer Chaudhari

(c)  Pratibha Ray

(d)  Rehman Rahi

 

28) The Sustainable Development Goals [SDFs], which were adapted by the UNO in place of the Millennium Development Goals [MGDs] 2015, aim to achieve the 17 goals by the year.

(a)  2020

(b)  2030

(c)  2040

(d)  2050

 

29) Teejan Bai, a recipient of the M.S. Subbulakshmi Centenary Award, 2016, is an exponent in

(a)  Kannanda classical vocal

(b)  Kajari dance

(c)  Bihu dance

(d)  Pandavani, a traditional performing art.

 

30) Who among the following is the recipient of the Dadasaheb Phalke Award, 2016 ?

(a)  Nana Patekar

(b)  Manoj Kumar

(c)  Javed Akhtar

(d)  K.Viswanath

 

31) Which one of the following statements about the all India Services is correct ?

(a)  The All India Services may be created by an Act of the Parliament.

(b)  The endorsement of the Rajya Sabha is not essential for the creation of the All India Services.

(c)  The rules of recruitment to the All India Services are determined by the UPSC.

(d)  The conditions of service to the All India Services may be altered by the UPSC.

 

32) Which one of the following statements about emergency provisions under the Constitution of India is not correct ?

(a)  The powers of the Union Executive extend to giving directions to the States concerning the exercise of their powers.

(b)  The Union Executive can issue a provision relating to reduction of salaries of employees of the state Governments.

(c)  Governors have no emergency powers like the President of India.

(d)  If the Governor of a State is satisfied that a situation has arisen whereby the financial stability or credit of the State is threatened, he may declare financial emergency in the State.

 

33) The National Handloom Day is observed on

(a)  7th June

(b)  17th July

(c)  7th August

(d)  17th September

 

34) Venus, the first environment research satellite, was launched in August 2017 by which one of the following countries ?

(a)  India

(b)  Russia

(c)  China

(d)  Israel

 

35) Which one of the following was the theme of the World Environment Day, 2017 ?

(a)  Green Economy : Does it include you ?

(b)  Connecting people to Nature

(c)  Think, Eat, save

(d)  Many Species, One Planet, One Future.

 

36) The all-women expedition of Indian Navy to circumnavigate the globe on the sailing vessel, INSC Tarini, is scheduled to have four stopovers. Which one of the following is not one of them?

(a)  Fremantle

(b)  Lyttelton

(c)  Port Stanley

(d)  Durban

 

37) Why was constitutional amendment needed for introducing GST ?

(a) States were not willing to agree with the Union for introduction of GST without amendment in the Constitution.

(b)  GST was to be implemented on concurrent base and Article 246 was inadequate for such a case.

(c)  The Empowered Committee of Finance ministers had recommended for constitutional amendment.

(d)  The GST Council had recommended for constitutional amendment so that its power enhances.

 

38) Where is the world’s first Partition Museum inaugurated recently ?

(a)  New Delhi

(b)  Lahore

(c)  Amritsar

(d)  Islamabad

 

39) The Setu Bharatam programme of the Government of India is a programme for

(a) building bridges across major rivers for transport of goods

(b)  buildings bridges for safe and seamless travel on national highways

(c)  building roads to connect coastal areas

(d)  training of highway engineers at the entry level and service level

 

40) Which one of the following statements about the Global Environment Facility Grant Agreement, signed by India in August 2017 with the World Bank for ‘Ecosystems Service Improvement Project’, is not correct ?

(a)  The size of the project is about USD 25 million.

(b)  The duration of the project is 15 years

(c)  The project will entirely be financed by the World Bank out of its GEF Trust Fund.

(d)  The Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change will implement the project.

 

41) UBI, as an alternative for substance in poverty alleviation, stands for

(a)  Union Basic Income

(b)  Undefined Basic Income

(c)  Unconditional Basic Income

(d)  Universal Basic Income

 

42) Which one of the following authorities has recently launched the mobile apps ‘MyFASTag’ and FASTag Partner’ ?

(a) Telecom Regulatory Authority

(b)  National Highways Authority

(c)  Airports Economic Regulatory Authority

(d)  National Disaster Management Authority

 

43) ‘Pragati scholarship scheme of the Government of India is meant for

(a) higher education of girls

(b)  technical education of girls

(c)  secondary education of girls

(d)  elementary education of girls

 

44) Which one of the following is not a feature of the Saansad Adaesh Gram Yojana [SAGY] ?

(a)  It focuses on community participation

(b)  It is to be guided by a Member of the Parliament

(c)  It aims at creating infrastructure for the village.

(d)  A Village Development Plan would be prepared for every identified Gram Panchayat.

 

45) Which one of the following is not included in the National Air Quality Index ?

(a)  Sulphur

(b)  Nitrogen dioxide

(c)  Lead

(d)  Methane

 

46) Which twelfth century Sanskrit scholar was first responsible for the compilation of ‘Nibandhas’ or digests of epic and Puranic texts ?

(a)  Harsha

(b)  Govindachandra

(c)  Lakshmidhara

(d)  Kalidasa

Source:

47) Who among the following scholars argued that ‘capital created underdevelopment not because it exploited the underdeveloped world, but because it did not exploit it enough ?

(a)  Bill Warren

(b)  Paul Baran

(c)  Geoffrey Kay

(d)  Lenin

 

48) Which river is praised in the fifth century Tamil epic, Silappadikaram ?

(a)  Cauvery

(b)  Godavari

(c)  Saraswati

(d)  Ganges

 

49) Which one of the following statements about the Harappan Culture is not correct ?

(a)  It witnessed the first cities in the subcontinent.

(b)  It marks the first use of script, written from right to left.

(c)  it marks the earliest known use of iron as a medium for the art of sculpting.

(d) It matks the earliest known use of stone as a medium for the art of sculpting.

 

50) Harshacharita has references to various presents sent by a ruler named Bhaskara to Harshavardhana. Bhaskara belonged to

(a)  Haryanka Dynasty of magadha

(b) Varman Dynasty of Assam

(c)  Nanda Dynasty of North India

(d)  None of the above

 

51) Which of the following lakes is/are situated in Ladakh ?

  1. Tso Kar
  2. Pangong Tso
  3. Tsomgo
  4. Tso Moriri

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a)  1 only

(b)  2  and 3

(c)   1, 2  and 4

(d)   2 and 4 only

 

52) ‘Tuvalu’ has become a point of discussion recently. Why ?

(a)  potato plant that could grow in high altitude.

(b)  Place in equatorial Africa, where snow is found

(c)  New innovative technology to meet global warming

(d)  A country under threat of submergence due to ice melting and sea level rise.

 

53) Which of the following statements related to latitude are true ?

  1. Rainfall, temperature and vegetation vary with latitude.
  2. The difference between the longest day and the shortest day increases with latitude.
  3. Indira Point is located approximately at 6o45’N latitude.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a)  1 and 2 only

(b)  1 and 3 only

(c)  2 and 3 only

(d)  1, 2 and 3

 

54) Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists :

List – I

[Lake]

  1. Bhimtal
  2. Ashtamudi
  3. Gohna
  4. Lonar

List – II

[Type of Lake]

  1. Lagoon
  2. Landslide
  3. Tectonic
  4. Crater

 

Code :

A         B         C         D

(a)        3          1          2          4

(b)       3          2          1          4

(c)        4          2          1          3

(d)       4          1          2          3

 

 

55) Which of the following statements is/are correct ?

  1. Himalayan rivers have their origin in the snow-covered areas, hence are dry in winter season.
  2. Rivers of the Peninsular Plateau have reached maturity.
  3. Himalayan rivers depict all the three stages of normal cycle of erosion.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a)  2 only

(b)  1 and 3 only

(c)  2 and 3 only

(d)  1, 2 and 3

 

56) match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists :

Lists – I

[States of NE India]

  1. Tripura
  2. Mizoram
  3. Nagaland
  4. Manipur

 

List – II

[Location in Map]

Code :

A         B         C         D

(a)        2          1          4          3

(b)       2          4          1          3

(c)        3          1          4          2

(d)       3          4          1          2

 

57) Which one of the following statements regarding Uniform Civil Code as provided under Article 44 of the Constitution of India is not correct ?

(a)  It is Fundamental Right of every Indian citizen.

(b)  The State shall endeavour to secure it for citizens throughout the territory of India.

(c)  It is not enforceable by any Court.

(d)  It is not enforceable by a Court yet the Constitution requires that as a principle it should be fundamental in the governance of our country.

 

58) Which of the following was/were founded by Raja Ram Mohan Roy ?

  1. Atmiya Sabha
  2. Brahmo Samaj
  3. Prarthana Samaj
  4. Arya Samaj

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a)  1, 2 and 3

(b)  2 only

(c)  1 and 2 only

(d)  1, 3 and 4

 

59) Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists.

Lists – I

[Harappan Site]

  1. Dholavira
  2. Rakhigarhi
  3. Bhirrana
  4. Bhogavo

List – II

[Modern Name]

  1. Saurashtra
  2. Hisar
  3. Kadir island
  4. Haryana

Code :

A         B         C         D

(a)        1          4          2          3

(b)       1          2          4          3

(c)        3          2          4          1

(d)       3          4          2          1

60) Which one of the following statements about the Gupta period in Indian history is not correct?

(a)  Sanskrit language and literature, after centuries of evolution, reached what has been described as a level of classical excellence through royal patronage.

(b)  The status of women was redefined. They were entitled to formal education and hence there were women teachers, philosophers and doctors. Early marriage was prohibited by law and they were given the right to property.

(c)  Decentralization of administrative authority was impacted by increased grants of land and villages with fiscal and administrative immunities to priests and temples.

(d)  land grants paved the way for feudal developments and emergence of selfdom in India, resulting in the depression of the peasantry.

 

61) The Nobel Prize in Physics for the year 2016 was given to

(a)  David J. Thouless

(b)  F. Duncan M. Haldane

(c)  J. Michael Kosterlitz

(d)  All of them

 

62) Which one of the following political parties was launched by Irom Sharmila in Manipur ?

(a)  People’s Resurgence and Justice Alliance

(b)  Manipur Resistance Alliance

(c)  Tribal Resistance Party

(d)  Revolutionary People’s Party

 

63) Which one of the following planets was explored by Cassini Mission launched by NASA, which ended in September 2017 ?

(a)  Sun

(b)  Neptune

(c)  Saturn

(d)  Jupiter

 

64) Match List – I  with List – II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists :

List – I

[Strait]

  1. Bass Strait
  2. Davis Strait
  3. Dover Strait
  4. Florida Strait

List – II

[Countries ]

  1. UK and France
  2. Australia and Tasmania
  3. USA and Cuba
  4. Canada and Greenland

Code :

A         B         C         D

(a)        2          4          1          3

(b)       2          1          4          3

(c)        3          4          1          2

(d)       3          1          4          2

 

65) Match List – I  with List – II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists :

List – I

[ Pass]

  1. Zoji La
  2. Shipki La
  3. Lipulekh
  4. Nathu La

List – II

[Place]

  1. Himachal Pradesh
  2. Uttarakhand
  3. Jammu and Kashmir
  4. Sikkim

Code :

A         B         C         D

(a)        4          2          1          3

(b)       4          1          2          3

(c)        3          1          2          4

(d)       3          2          1          4

 

66) Match List – I  with List – II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists :

List – I

[Concern]

  1. TISCO
  2. BALCO
  3. BPCL
  4. BEL

List – II

[Product]

  1. Chemicals
  2. Iron & steel
  3. Electronics
  4. Aluminium

Code :

A         B         C         D

(a)        2          1          4          3

(b)       2          4          1          3

(c)        3          4          1          2

(d)       3          1          4          2

 

67) Match List – I  with List – II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists :

List – I

[National Highway]

  1. NH – 2
  2. NH – 4
  3. NH – 7
  4. NH – 8

List – II

[Route]

  1. Delhi – Jaipur – Ahmedabad – Mumbai
  2. Thane – Pune – Bengaluru – Chennai
  3. Delhi – Agra – Allahabad – Kolkata
  4. Varanasi – jabalpur – Nagpur – Hyderabad – Bengaluru – Madurai – Kanyakumari

Code :

A         B         C         D

(a)        3          4          2          1

(b)       1          2          4          3

(c)        1          4          2          3

(d)       3          2          4          1

 

68) One carbon credit is accepted as equivalent to

(a)  100 kg of carbon

(b)  100 kg of carbon dioxide

(c)  1000 kg of carbon

(d)  1000 kg of carbon dioxide

 

69) An emulsion consists of

(a)  one liquid and one solid

(b)  one liquid and one gas

(c)  two liquids

(d)  two solids

 

70) Which one of the following radioactive substances enters/enter the human body through food chain and causes/cause many physiological disorders ?

(a) Strontium – 90

(b)  Iodine – 131

(c)  Cesium – 137

(d)  All of the above

 

71) ‘Xeriscaping’ is a concept related to

(a)  landscaping related to save water

(b) landscaping related to save soil erosion

(c)  weathering of rock surface

(d)  all of the above

72) Joule – Thomson process is extremely useful and economical for attaining low temperature. The process can be categorized as

(a)  isobaric process

(b)  isoenthalpic process

(c)  adiabatic process

(d)  isochoric process

 

73) Ultrasonic waves are produced by making use of

(a)  ferromagnetic material

(b)  ferrimagnetic material

(c)  piezoelectric material

(d)  pyroelectrical material

 

74) A person throws an object on a horizontal friction plane surface. It is noticed that there are two forces acting on this object – (i) gravitational pull and (ii) normal reaction of the surface. According to the third law of motion, the net resultant force is zero. Which one of the following can be said for the motion of the objects ?

(a)  The object will move with acceleration.

(b)  The object will move with deceleration.

(c)  The object will move with constant speed, but varying direction.

(d)  The object will move with constant velocity.

 

75) Consider the following statements :

  1. The chain reaction process is used in nuclear bombs to release a vast amount of energy, but in nuclear reactors, there is no chain reaction.
  2. In a nuclear reactor, the reaction is controlled, while in nuclear bombs, the reaction is uncontrolled.
  3. In a nuclear reactor, all operating reactors are ‘critical’, while there is no question of ‘critically’ in case of a nuclear bomb.
  4. Nuclear reactors do not use moderators, while nuclear bombs use them.

Which of the above statements about operational principles of a nuclear reactor and a nuclear bomb is/are correct ?

(a)  1 and 3

(b)  2 and 3

(c)  4 only

(d)  1 and 4

CDS 1 2017 Final Result 209 Candidates Got Recommended

0
CDS 1 2017 FINAL RESULT 209 CANDIDATES GOT RECOMMENDED

The following are the lists, in order of merit of 209 (124+75+10) candidates who have qualified on the basis of the results of the Combined Defence Services Examination (I), 2017 conducted by the Union Public Service Commission in February, 2017 and SSB interviews held by the Services Selection Board of the Ministry of Defence for admission to the 144th Course of Indian Military Academy, Dehradun; Indian Naval Academy, Ezhimala, Kerala and Air Force Academy, Hyderabad (Pre-Flying) Training Course i.e. No. 203 F (P) Course.

There are some common candidates in the three lists for various courses. The number of vacancies, as intimated by the Government is 150 for Indian Military Academy [including 19 vacancies reserved for NCC ‘C’ certificates (Army Wing) holders], 45 for Indian Naval Academy, Ezhimala, Kerala Executive(General Service) [including 06 vacancies reserved for NCC ‘C’ Certificate holders (Naval Wing)] and 32 for Air Force Academy, Hyderabad.

The Commission had recommended 3611,2154 and 650 as qualified in the written test for admission to the Indian Military Academy, Indian Naval Academy and Air Force Academy respectively. The number of candidates finally qualified are those after SSB test conducted by Army Head Quarters.cds exam book

The results of Medical examination have not been taken into account in preparing these lists.
Verification of date of birth and educational qualifications of these candidates is still under process by the Army Headquarters. The candidature of all these candidates is, therefore, Provisional on this score. Candidates are requested to forward their certificates, in original, in support of Date of Birth/Educational qualification etc. claimed by them, along with Photostat attested copies thereof to Army Headquarters /Naval Headquarters /Air Headquarters, as per their first choice.

In case, there is any change of address, the candidates are advised to promptly intimate directly to the Army Headquarters /Naval Headquarters /Air Headquarters. These results will also be available on the UPSC website at http://www.upsc.gov.in. However, marks of the candidates will be available on the website after completion of its complete process i.e. after declaration of final result of Officers’ Training Academy (OTA) for Combined Defence Services Examination (I), 2017.

CDS 2018 Study Material

[pdfviewer]https://www.ssbcrack.com/wp-content/uploads/2017/11/FR_CDS_I_2017_Engl_F.pdf[/pdfviewer]

CDS 2 2017 Cut Off Marks [Official]

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CDS 2 2017 Cut Off Marks [Expected]

UPSC conducted the Combined Defence Service exam twice every year CDS 2 2017 exam was of 2nd phase which was held on 19th Nov 2017, many eligible and interested candidates has appeared on that day and successfully given they exam. Now they all are waiting for CDS 2 2017 result and final cut off marks. If you also looking for the merit list of CDS exam, then you must check the information which is mentioned below.

Name of department Union Public Service Commission UPSC
Name of the exam CDS 2 2017
Details for UPSC CDS 2 Cut Off Marks 2017
Date of announcement 2017

CDS 2 Exam 2017 Cut Off Marks

As per the notice announced that the result of CDS 2 2017 will be declared in Jan/ Feb 2018 and it will be shown on an official website of UPSC. You can check it on the online, UPSC will not send any type of letter to invite that you are selected or not, so you can check the official website daily.

CDS 2 2017 Cut Off Marks

CDS 2 2017 Cut Off Marks [Written]

S.No Academy Cut Off
1 OTA (Women) 86
2 OTA (Men) 86
3 IMA 120
4 INA 111
5 IAF 135

 

CDS 2012 Cutoff

    Written ExamResult Final Result
Academy Qualifying Marks in Each Subject Aggregate Marks of Last Qualified Candidate Marks of Last Recommended Candidate
IMA 12 114 237
INA 12 108 231
AFA 12 144 266
OTA (Men) 12 76 158
OTA (Women) 12 76 159

CDS 2013 Cutoff

    Written ExamResult Final Result
Academy Qualifying Marks in Each Subject Aggregate Marks of Last Qualified Candidate Marks of Last Recommended Candidate
IMA 20 marks (i.e. 20%) 111 marks( i.e 37%) 231
INA 20 marks (i.e. 20%) 111 marks( i.e 37%) 231
AFA 20 marks (i.e. 20%) 135 marks (i.e. 45%) 266
OTA (Men) 20 marks (i.e. 20%) 76 marks (i.e. 38%) 158
OTA (Women) 20 marks (i.e. 20%) 76 marks (i.e. 38%) 160

CDS 2014 Cutoff (Expected)

CDS 2014 Cutoff mentioned here is expected as the final result for the CDS II 2014 Examination is not announced as yet on the UPSC website-

Academy Written Exam Result Final Result
IMA 102 225
INA 75 206
AFA 129 256
OTA (Men) 72 154
OTA (Women) 72 152

Stay in touch with this space for more information regarding the CDS 2 2016 Cutoff Marks.

We request our warriors to email us their scanned question papers to [email protected]

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CDS 2 2017 Answer Keys | CDS 2 Answer Keys 2017 [All Sets] -Updated

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cds 2 2017 answer keys

Check: CDS 1 2018 Answer Keys. Written exam of CDS-2-2017 was conducted by UPSC on 19th Nov 2017. Candidates who gave written CDSE 2 2017 must be waiting for CDS 2 2017 answer keys and cut off marks. Through CDS 2 2017 candidates will join the course commencing in Jan 2019 for admission to the Army, Air Force wings and  Navy. Courses like IMA 145 Course, SSC 108th, 20th OTA, 204th Flying Course and Naval Academy. Candidates looking for CDS 2 2017 Key and cut off marks, Paper solution sheet, CDS key 2017,  CDS 2 2017 Cut Off Marks / answer sheet of CDS-2 2017 can check it on SSBCrack. Aspirants can look at the answer keys for their CDS written exam, here of paper-1st and paper-2nd with set-a, set-b, set-c, set-d. 


CDSE 2 2017 includes three different papers i.e English, Maths and General Knowledge for IMA, AFA and NA. For OTA candidates, there were only two papers i.e. English and General Knowledge. CDSE is conducted by UPSC twice every year. When comparing CDS 2 2017 from last exam, it was same. 

Note: CDS 2 2017 answer keys are updated now- Apologies if there is an error in the answer keys, requesting you to cross when in doubt.

Baalnoi Academy CDS-2 2017 Examination Answer Key – UPDATED

  English General Knowledge Mathematics
SET-A Click Here Click Here Click Here
SET-B Click Here Click Here Click Here
SET-C Click Here Click Here Click Here
SET-D Click Here Click Here Click Here

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Best Book To Crack SSB

 

CDS 2 2017 Question Paper Solved – UPDATED

CDS 2 2017 SET D Answer Keys – English

[pdfviewer]https://www.ssbcrack.com/wp-content/uploads/2017/11/CDS-2-2017-Answer-Keys-ENGLISH-SET-D.pdf[/pdfviewer]

CDS 2 2017 SET D Answer Keys – GK

[pdfviewer]https://www.ssbcrack.com/wp-content/uploads/2017/11/CDS-2-2017-Answer-Keys-GENERAL-KNOWLEDGE-SET-D.pdf[/pdfviewer]

CDS 2 2017 SET D Answer Keys – Maths

[pdfviewer]https://www.ssbcrack.com/wp-content/uploads/2017/11/CDS-2-2017-Answer-Keys-MATHS-SET-D.pdf[/pdfviewer]

CDS 2 2017 SET D Question Paper English

[pdfviewer]https://www.ssbcrack.com/wp-content/uploads/2017/11/CDS-2-2017-Question-Paper-English-PDF.pdf[/pdfviewer]

CDS 2 2017 SET D Question Paper GK

[pdfviewer]https://www.ssbcrack.com/wp-content/uploads/2017/11/CDS-2-2017-Question-Paper-GK-PDF.pdf[/pdfviewer]

CDS 2 2017 SET D Question Paper Maths – Updating

 

 


 

  • CDS 2 2017 Answer Key [ by Baalnoi]
  • CDS 2 2017 Answer Keys All Sets [ Cavalier]
  • CDS 1 2017 Answer Keys All Sets [ Kalshi]

Download:

CDS-I 2017 Examination
Answer Key

  English General Knowledge Mathematics
SET-A Click Here Click Here Click Here
SET-B Click Here Click Here Click Here
SET-C Click Here Click Here Click Here
SET-D Click Here Click Here Click Here

CDS 1 2017 Cutoff Marks CDS 2 Answer Key 2017 Paper 1st, 2nd and 3rd Solution

English: 

GK: 

Maths: 

Overall the paper was good enough for the candidates who have done preparation beforehand. UPSC may declare the results of CDSE 1 2017 in May – June 2017. CDSE 1 2017 cut off may go up to 120 Marks for AFA, 110 marks for IMA,  90 for OTA and 100 for NA. Keep an eye on this page for the CDS 1 2017 answers key to come up from The Cavalier Coaching Institute, Baalnoi, NCA and Khalsi Classes for  CDS-1 answer sheet 2017 and CDS 1 2017 cut off.

CDS 1 2017 Answer Keys All Sets [ Cavalier]

  • CDS 1 2017 Maths Answer Keys – Updating
  • CDS 1 2017 English Answer Keys – Updating
  • CDS 1 2017 GK Answer Keys  –

CDS 1 2017 Answer Keys All Sets [ Kalshi]

  English General Knowledge Mathematics
SET-A Click Here Click Here Click Here
SET-B Click Here Click Here Click Here
SET-C Click Here Click Here Click Here
SET-D Click Here Click Here Click Here

 

So how was your CDSE 1 2017 written experience? Aspirants, post your review and expected marks in the comment section below. Also, few good warriors are requested to send their scanned questions papers at [email protected]

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140 Latest Original Lecturette Topics Asked In SSB Interview 2023

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These topics are collected and compiled by SSBCrack’s team. candidates who are going to attend the SSB interview soon can refer to the original Lecturette topics collected from candidates who have been to SSB recently. Lecturette topic is mentioned along with the name of the SSB centre where it was faced by the candidates.

Lecturette is one of the tests conducted during SSB interview to judge the personality of the candidates. We can say Lecturette is a small speech or a small talk given by the candidate, Lecturette is conducted by GTO during group task.

Lecturette Topics eBook SSBCrack

Latest Lecturette Topics Asked In SSB Interview collected by SSBCrack

  1. Juvenile crime – 33 SSB
  2. Land requisition bill, e commerce, Aadhar Card, Indo China relations in – 21SSB BHOPAL
  3. Modernisation
  4. AFSPA – 22 SSB
  5. Falling value of Indian rupee in context to dollar – 21ssb
  6. FDI in defence , Brahmos, India-Srilanka ties – 21ssb
  7. Yoga – 24 SSB Bangalore
  8. Population – Merits and demerits – Gandhinagar AFSB
  9. Reservations system – 31SSB Kapurthala
  10. CPEC, Sex Education , Honor Killing in – 4 AFSB Varanasi
  11. Sponsorship in sports
  12. Mobile phones – 22 SSB Bhopal
  13. WTO, Social Network, Tax Reform and My Best Friend
  14. Indian Democracy – Is it a force or flawed – 33 SSB Bhopal
  15. Indo-China relationships, ISRO vs NASA – 33 SSB
  16. Internal situation of Pakistan – 18 SSB ALLAHABAD
  17. Indian Economy
  18. Training in Armed Forces – 22 SSB Bhopal
  19. Dowry system, Role of NGO, Senior citizens – 1 AFSB
  20. Indigenization, Capital Punishment, Child Labour, Gambling – 2AFSB Mysore
  21. Child labour – 4 AFSB Varanasi
  22. Women Empowerment in 4 AFSB Varanasi
  23. Sign language
  24. Indo-China , ISRO – 33 SSB
  25. Defense budget
  26. Higher education in India – AFSB 1 Dehradun
  27. Medical Science – 4 AFSB
  28. 3G Mobile Communication – 12 SSB Bangalore
  29. Reforms in UN security council – 1 AFSB Dehradun
  30. India : a global R &D destination
  31. NDRF, RELIGIOUS FUNDAMENTALISM, FAV ACTOR, STING OPERATION – 17 SSB
  32. Police Duties
  33. National Integration, Television, Mercy Killing – 34 SSB Allahabad
  34. Justice delayed is justice denied – NSB Bhopal
  35. Influence of western culture
  36. New technologies in India, Nuclear power
  37. Chinese goods impact on India
  38. ISIS- SSB KAPURTHALA
  39. Role of India in united nation
  40. Nasalism, Digital Sector, Instagram, Indo Myanmar relations – Kapurthala
  41. Election commission AFSB Mysore
  42. Global Warming – 18 SSB Allahabad
  43. Make in India
  44. Sex Education, MNC, Organ Donation – 11SSB Allahabad
  45. Division of states – 2 AFSB
  46. Is consumer still a king? – 12 SSB
  47. Love marriage or arrange marriage 22 SSB Bhopal
  48. Power and Politics – NSB Coimbatore
  49. Reservation system, Western education vs traditional education- 33 SSB
  50. India’s role in world forum- 22 SSB
  51. Evolution in telecommunication – 32 SSB Kapurthala
  52. Child labor , fundamental rights
  53. Industrialization, Jallilkattu – 21 SSB Bhopal
  54. Organic farming -38 Bangalore
  55. Cybercrime 22 SSB Bhopal
  56. How to improve sports in India – NSB Vishakhapatnam
  57. Paid media – 19 SSB
  58. Uses of technology in agriculture sector – 21SSB Bhopal
  59. Student Union – 19SSB
  60. ISRO – 33 SSB
  61. Terrorism and infiltration.
  62. Swatch Bharat Abhiyaan – SSB Allahabad.
  63. Cosmetic-a new rage, Privacy, Genetically modified food, Fav Sportsperson – 4 AFSB
  64. Electronic devices
  65. Internal problems between Indo Pak – 24 SSB Bangalore
  66. Tourism in India – AFSB MYSURU
  67. Development of rural areas in India – NSB Coimbatore
  68. RTE – 19 SSB Allahabad
  69. Secularism, Nuclear Proliferation, Subsidies – AFSB Mysore
  70. Indian Foreign Policy – 33 SSB Bhopal
  71. Internet- curse or boon – 4 AFSB Varanasi.
  72. Poverty Eradication – 33 SSB Bhopal
  73. Cross border terrorism, Strategic importance of Indian Ocean.
  74. Coastal security – 33 SSB Bhopal
  75. Cyber Security, Brain drain, Family planning, Internet necessary evil, China secret threats against India
  76. Cyber bullying
  77. Organ trafficking – 12 SSB Bangalore.
  78. India’s stand on terrorism 21 Bhopal
  79. Higher education in India – 20 SSB Bhopal
  80. West Asia Crisis – 34 SSB Allahabad
  81. South China Sea Dispute – 19 SSB Allahabad
  82. Biotechnology – 21 SSB
  83. OPPOSITES ATTRACT – 19 SSB Allahabad
  84. Brahmos/Montreal protocol/COP21/my greatest achievement.
  85. India’s foreign relation, DRDO, Junk food, Constitutional reforms – 188 SSB Allahabad
  86. World Trade Organization, United Nations role in global Development – NSB
  87. Operating System 14 SSB
  88. Optical fiber, Women cricket world cup , Juvenile crime, Modern automobile – 2 AFSB Mysore
  89. Dynastic Politics – 1 AFSB
  90. Cybercrime, Sports in India, Social media
  91. Swatch Bharat – SSB Allahabad
  92. India – A Giant Country Awaken – 17 SSB
  93. Coalition politics, Extra-terrestrial life, Meeting energy crisis in India – 33 SSB Bhopal
  94. Metro railway – 18 SSB Allahabad
  95. Impact of Globalisation on Indian economy- SSB Allahabad
  96. Superiority of RUSSIA AND USA in world and the rising competition
  97. Dynamic politics – 19 SSB Allahabad
  98. Election system in India – 14 SSB Bangalore
  99. Should India break its diplomatic ties with Pakistan – NSB Vizag
  100. Fav cricketer – SSB Bangalore
  101. Cause of poverty in India – AFSB Varanasi
  102. US-CHN relations – INS AGRANI Coimbatore
  103. Women in combat role – 17 SSB Bangalore
  104. Criminalsation in politics – 20 SSB Bhopal
  105. Tourism in India
  106. Impact of cinema on youth – AFSB Dehradun
  107. Distance Education – 21 SSB
  108. Global Warming – 19 SSB
  109. Why china is biggest threat to India – 18 SSB
  110. Doping in sports (TGC-126)
  111. Ills of democracy – SSB BANGALORE
  112. Rural development and ethical hacking – 22 SSB Bhopal
  113. Unemployment
  114. How to increase GDP Rate
  115. Agriculture in India.
  116. Women as Fighter Pilots in Indain Air Force – 2 AFSB.
  117. Indo China relation – 22 SSB Bhopal
  118. Women in present society – SSB Bhopal
  119. Sports in India – AFSB Mysore
  120. Indo-Russian relationship – 19 SSB
  121. Effects of social media – 14 Allahabad
  122. Boarding School – 18 SSB Allahabad
  123. IT industry – 14 SSB Allahabad
  124. Kashmir – 34 SSB Allahabad
  125. Bigger states vs Smaller states 17 – SSB Bangalore
  126. Importance of E-Commerce – 4 AFSB VARANASI
  127. Corruption in politics
  128. Present situation of Indian judiciary system
  129. Do religious institution promote religious discrimination!?
  130. Hardwork or intelligence
  131. Dynastic politics
  132. Alquaida 18 SSB Bangalore
  133. Importance of international organisations
  134. China becoming an economic super power
  135. Daily Soaps – 18 SSB Bangalore
  136. Illiteracy – 22 SSB Bhopal
  137. Disposal of nuclear waste – 33 SSB Bhopal
  138. Contribution of Gandhi -18 SSB ALLAHABAD
  139. Nuclear energy- 21 SSB Bhopal
  140. Medical transcription- 17 SSB Bangalore
  141. Make in India – 19 SSB Allahabad

To Prepare for  SSB Interview Get

Breaking The Code of SSB Psychological Tests [Book]

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Breaking The Code of SSB Psychological Tests

This book is ideal for people who aspire to pass the psychology tests in SSB interview with flying colors. There are a number of different tests to be covered at each step-in order to clear the psychology test. This book will help you at every level, using the simplest language that is easy to understand and work with. The workflow of the content in this book is such that it caters to even the most novice candidates who are not very well versed with these psychological tests. All thanks to the well-structured outlined methods, it becomes easy for the aspirants to grasp the knowledge imparted. In another light, this book acts as a personality development manual. It has been put together after compiling experiences gathered from different SSB tests. Add to that, the feedback received from recommended candidates and SSB assessors. It presents to you with the perfect set of tools that are required in shaping up your personality for the Armed Forces.

This is just not a book that tells you how to behave in Psychological tests. Instead, it sheds light on your existing personality and choices and provides you inputs with what can be incorporated in it. What does the book contain? It starts with a description of the Services Selection Board and what one can expect at these interviews. The testing procedures are divided into three parts: Screening, psychological testing, interview testing and group testing. While this book is mainly focused on psychological testing procedure contains TAT, WAT, SRT and SD. Each such test is described in details with suggestions on how to deal with these situations. In this book you will read many examples of TAT, WAT, SRT and SD, like always we suggest our readers that these examples are to help you to understand how to deal correctly with these tests so avoid mugging up the same responses.

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Defence Current Affairs Questions 2018 [All Months]

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Defence-Current-Affairs-Questions-2018

If you are looking for latest defence news and current affairs for your competitive exam and interview preparation, we have listed a brief major defence events in 2018- 2017 which you can go through within few minutes. Latest defence current affairs questions are given for all months from January 2017 until Feb 2018. These defence related questions will help you in the upcoming defence exams like NDA, CDS, AFCAT and other competitive exams in India. This Defence current affairs PDF will provide you an insight into current affair events related to national and international defence. Defence current affairs Ebook is linked at the end of this article, you can download it free of cost.

Defence Current Affairs Questions 2018 – 2018 [All Months]

Defence Current Affairs January 2017

  • Israeli Air Force Receives First Anti-Missile Interceptors for Arrow 3 System
  • SF launches operation ‘SardHawa’ at Rajasthan border
  • Pakistan Navy Receives Two Ships From China to Ensure Security along Gwadar Port
  • NS Khanderi, Second Scorpene Class Submarine Launched in Mumbai
  • Chinese Navy Commissions Sophisticated Ship CNS Kaiyangxing into its Fleet
  • Guided Pinaka Rocket Successfully Test-Fired by India
  • Indian Navy’s Theatre Level Exercise, TROPEX 17 Begins
  • INS Vikramaditya Becomes India’s First Warship to Have ATM Onboard
  • China Commissions its 31st Stealth Warship
  • Guided Pinaka test fired successfully again
  • Pakistan Successfully Conducts First Flight Test of N- Capable Ababeel Missile
  • Whatsapp helpline Luanched by Army Chief Gen. Bipin Rawat launches to Address grievances of Army personnel
  • Indian Navy Issues RFI to procure 57 Carrier-Borne Fighter Jets
  • India Successfully Test Fires Agni IV Ballistic Missile off Odisha Coast. Agni IV is a two-stage solid-propelled, surface-to-surface ballistic missile which is designed to carry a payload of 1-tonne up to a distance of 4,000 km.
  • Pakistan Successfully Test-Fires Submarine-Launched Nuclear-Capable Missile. The missile Babur-3 which was fired from an underwater, mobile platform, hit the target with precise accuracy.
  • Indian Army conducted trials of Indigenous Artillery Gun System Dhanush in the Himalayas
  • Ministry of Defence to Set up Rs 1500 cr Defence Unit in Morena district of Madhya Pradesh
  • Reliance Defence Signs Contract with Ministry of Defence to Construct 14 Fast patrol Vessels for Indian Coast Guard

Defence Current Affairs February 2017

  • China tests missile DF-5C with 10 nuclear warheads
  • Integrated Underwater Harbour Defence & Surveillance System Launched in Mumbai
  • Multinational Naval Drill Aman-17 Begins in Karachi
  • 2017 Cobra Gold Exercise Begins in Thailand
  • India Successfully Test-Fires Home Grown Interceptor Missile in Odisha coast
  • INS Sarvekshak Becomes India’s First Ship to be Installed with Solar Power System
  • Sailboat INSV Tarini Inducted into Indian Navy on 18 February 2017
  • Fast Patrol Vessel of Indian Coast Guard Ship ICGS AYUSH Commissioned at Kochi
  • Pakistan Army Launches Military Operation Radd-ul-Fasaad to Eliminate Terrorism

Defence Current Affairs March 2017

  • India Successfully Test-Fires Indigenously Developed Supersonic Interceptor Missile
  • Navy successfully test-fires anti-ship missile from Kalvari submarine
  • DRDO Hands Over 3 of its Developed Products Weapon Locating Radar (WLR) SWATHI, NBC Recce Vehicle, NBC Drugs to Indian Army
  • Indian Navy’s Oldest Warship INS Viraat, Decommissions on March 6 After 30-Year Service
  • Vice Admiral Girish Luthra Commissions INS Tillanchang at Karwar
  • South Korea and United States Begin Annual Military Drill Foal Eagle
  • India to train Myanmar Navy to boost strategic cooperation under the ‘Act East’ policy
  • Indo-Nepal joint Military exercise ‘Surya Kiran-Xi’ begins in Uttarakhand
  • Joint Military Exercise AL NAGAH-II Begins Between India-Oman in Himachal Pradesh
  • India Successfully Conducts Maiden Tests of Extended Version of BrahMos Supersonic Cruise Missile
  • Pakistan successfully test-fires land based anti-ship missile
  • Three New Naval System To Indian Navy By DRDO i.e. 1USHUS –II SUBMARINE SONOR. 2. DIRECTING GEAR FOR HULL-MOUNTED SONAR ARRAY, 3. INTERNAL NAVIGATION SYSTEM FOR SHIP APPLICATION
  • Indian Navy Conducts Successful Test-Firing of Surface-to-Air Barak Missile from INS Vikramaditya
  • INLCU L51 commissioned into Indian Navy at Port Blair
  • De-Induction Of Indian Navy’s TU142M Aircraft and Induction of Boeing P8I Into INAS 312

Defence Current Affairs April 2017

  • India Mongolia Military Exercise Exercise Nomadic Elephant- XII kicks off in Mizoram
  • US conducts successful field test of new B61-12 nuclear bomb
  • Coast Guard decommissions ICGS Varad after 27 years
  • Nepal and China to Conduct Sagarmatha Friendship
  • Joint Indian-French naval exercise ‘Varuna’ begins at the Mediterranean Sea
  • INS Chennai dedicated, Chennai to become hub of Naval activities
  • Navy successfully tests land-attack BrahMos supersonic missile
  • IAF Inducts Su-30 MKI into Frontline 221 Squadron
  • Joint operational doctrine for army, navy, air force unveiled
  • India successfully test-fires Agni-III ballistic missile

Defence Current Affairs May 2017

  • INS Ganga placed in non-operational category
  • Terminal High Altitude Area Defense (THAAD) missile defense system now operational in South Korea
  • Indian Army successfully test-fires advanced Block-III version of Brahmos cruise missile
  • India test-fires Agni-II ballistic Missile from Wheeler Island, off Odisha coast
  • Cordon and Search Operations (CASO) reintroduced as part of counter-terror ops in Kashmir
  • Indian Navy Decommissions Minesweepers – INS Karwar and INS Kakinada
  • Bilateral exercise between Indian Republic of Singapore Navy Simbex 17 commences
  • 29th India- Indonesia Co-Ordinated Patrol (Corpat) Commences
  • Philippines, US begin smaller-scale joint military exercises
  • “Jordan, US launch major military exercises “Eager Lion”
  • India’s INS Tarkash marks ‘UK India Year of Culture’
  • Joint Hadr Exercise commences at Naval Station Karwar
  • Indian Army gets its first two modern artillery gun M777 Ultra Lightweight Howitzer artillery guns from BAE Systems, US almost 30 years after BoforsFor Current Affairs

Defence Current Affairs June 2017

  • Prithvi-II missile successfully test-fired from Odisha
  • India successfully test-fires 1st all weather tracked-chassis Quick Reaction Surface-to-Air Missile (QR-SAM)
  • Indian Warships reach Australia to take part in Bilateral Maritime Exercise AUSINDEX-17
  • DRDO successfully test fires anti-tank guided missile ‘Nag’ in desert ranges of Rajasthan

Defence Current Affairs July 2017

  • Indo-Thai joint military exercise Ex Maitree 2017 begins in Himachal Pradesh
  • Trilateral Malabar exercise begins in Chennai
  • NATO military drills in Eastern Europe begin in Bulgaria
  • China-Russia naval exercise Joint Sea 2017 begins in Baltic Sea.
  • Australia and US test-fires multimillion hypersonic missile – Hypersonic International Flight Research Experimentation Program (HIFiRE)
  • US Navy tests world’s first Laser Weapons System LaWS
  • GRSE hands over 2nd LCU Mark IV vessel to Indian Navy
  • World’s largest supercarrier USS Gerald R Ford commissioned in USA
  • Reliance Defence launches first two naval patrol vessels Shachi and Shruti
  • Muntra – country’s first unmanned tank, rolls out from the Chennai lab

Defence Current Affairs August 2017

  • Sri Lankan Navy commissions India-built AOPV
  • Indian Coast Guard ship ‘Shaurya’ commissioned in Goa
  • First tri-service “Indra” exercise to be conducted by India and Russia in Oct 2017
  • IMMSAREX: India, China to join Indian Ocean exercise in November
  • Defence acquisition council (DAC) approves Army to Get 6 Apache Attack Helicopters in Deal worth Rs 4,168 Crore
  • Central govt approves nearly Rs.32k crore plan for boosting Coast Guard capabilities
  • Ministry of Defence approves delegation of Powers to Border Roads Organisation (BRO)
  • Jagdish Mukhi commissioned IN LCU L52, Second Ship of Landing Craft Utility into the Indian Navy at Port Blair
  • US-South Korea begin annual “The Ulchi Freedom Guardian “military
  • Indian student develops Nano Missile for Indian Army
  • Arun Jaitley hands over Long-Range Surface-to-Air Missile (LRSAM) to Indian Navy jointly developed by India and Israel
  • Coast Guard ship ‘Varuna’ decommissioned
  • American Ship USS Pearl Harbor arrived India as part of Defense cooperation
  • Government approves first phase of Army reforms of recommendations of Shekatkar Committee with an aim to increase “teeth to tail ratio”

Defence Current Affairs September 2017

  • India hands over off-shore patrol vessel Varuna to Sri Lanka
  • India and Sri Lanka begin Joint Naval Exercise SLINEX 2017 at Visakhapatnam
  • Joint India-Nepal army exercise begins in Saljhandi, Nepal
  • Ashok Leyland, ELCOM ink defence pact with Russian firm
  • Swedish defence giant Saab, Adani join hands for defence manufacturing
  • DRDO successfully flight tested Anti Tank Guided Missile – NAG
  • SpaceX launches US Air Force’s super-secret mini-shuttle
  • Reliance Energy launched digital assistance robot-ELEKTRA
  • In accordance with the India’s ‘Act East Policy’, two Indian Naval Ships departed for deployment to East and South-East Asia.
  • Defence Minister Nirmala Sitharam flags off INSV Tarini at INS Mandovi
  • “Sweden hosts huge war games exercise “Aurora” with NATO
  • China, Pakistan air forces launch joint exercise Shaheen VI
  • IAF completes development trials of Astra air-to-air missile Astra – Beyond Visual Range Air to Air Missile (BVRAAM) were successfully
  • Indigenous artillery gun Advanced Towed Artillery Gun System (ATAGS) sets new record in range – 48KM
  • Indian Naval units of Western Naval Command on Long Range Deployment
  • IDF, US Army inaugurates first American military base in Israel
  • India & US armies begin ‘Yudh Abhyas 2017’ military exercise in Joint Base Lewis McChord, Washington
  • Iron Union 5: Joint military exercise of US and UAE started in Abu Dhabi
  • Joint Sea-2017: China, Russia joint naval drills in Russian port city, Vladivostok
  • Exercise Panda-Kangaroo 2017: Chinese, Australian conducted 1st joint drills in China
  • Turkey hosts NATO naval exercise” Dynamic Monarch”
  • Indian Navy commissions INS Tarasa, a Water Jet Fast Attack Craft at Mumbai
  • New interceptor boat V-409 launched
  • DRUZBA 2017: Pak, Russia holds joint military drill in Minralney Vody, Russia
  • Pakistani Navy successfully tests anti-ship missile
  • Coast Guard commissions 2 high speed interceptor boats

Defence Current Affairs October 2017

  • Mitra Shakti 2017: India-Sri Lanka Joint Military Exercise held in Pune
  • INS Satpura, Kadmatt participates in Passage Exercise in Japan
  • Sixteen planes of the Indian Air Force performed breathtaking landings and touch-and-go manoeuvres on a stretch of the Lucknow-Agra Expressway today. A 35,000 kg C-130J Super Hercules aircraft landed first with Garud Special Forces commandos to secure the landing zone as part of the drill.
  • Defence Ministry to raise three new tri-service agencies 1. Defence Cyber Agency 2.Defence Space Agency 3.Special Operations Division
  • INS Kiltan commissioned into Indian Navy in Visakhapatnam.
  • 4th ASEAN Defence Ministers’ Meeting-Plus to be held in Philippines
  • INDRA 2017: First tri-services military exercise between India-Russia begins
  • All-women crew of Navika Sagar Parikrama expedition reaches Fremantle.
  • Sri Lankan Coast Guard commissions OPV SURAKSHA gifted by India.
  • 27 October: Infantry Day.
  • Indian Navy approves new mission-based deployment plan.
  • Indian Army finalises plan to modernise weapons.Around 7 lakh rifles, 44,000 LMGs and nearly 44,600 carbines will be acquired for infantry modernisation.
  • OPV Vikram: L&T hand overs first defence vessel built in private shipyard to Coast Guard.

Defence Current Affairs November 2017

  • Indra-2017: Joint Indo-Russia Tri-Services Exercise successfully conducted.
  • Defence Acquisition Council (DAC) clears mega project to acquire 111 helicopters for Indian Navy.
  • Indian Army releases Integrated Quarter Master Package Software Application.
  • PRABAL DOSTYK 2017: Indo – Kazakhstan Joint Exercise begins.
  • Smart Anti Airfield Weapon: DRDO successfully tests light weight glide bomb Smart Anti Airfield Weapon (SAAW).
  • India offers to share real-time maritime data with 10 Indian Ocean littoral states.
  • NIRBHAY Sub-Sonic Cruise Missile successfully flight tested.
  • CATOBAR: India Navy to use US aircraft launch system in ship.
  • EX BLUE FLAG-17’ kicked off along with air forces from nine countries – the largest aerial exercise ever held by the Israel Defense Forces. For the first time, the Indian Air Force or IAF is participating in Blue Flag 2017.
  • Indian Army will soon get new generation, state-of-the-art tanks called the Future Ready Combat Vehicle (FRCV), numbering over 1700, to replace the ageing Soviet-era T-72 tanks.
  • Indian Air Force’s ‘flying daggers’ squadron expected to shift from Bengaluru to Tamil Nadu’s Coimbatore.
  • Joint Indo-Bangladesh Training Exercise SAMPRITI 2017 was culminated at Counter Insurgency & Jungle Warfare School, Vairengte in Mizoram.
  • The Governments of Odisha and neighboring West Bengal conducted joint security exercise named ‘Sagar Kavach’ to further tighten the existing coastal security mechanism along the 630 km long coastline.
  • The first India-Myanmar Bilateral Military Exercise 2017 (IMBAX 2017) was held at Joint Warfare Centre at the Umroi Joint Training Node in Meghalaya.
  • The 42nd World Congress of the International Committee of Military Medicine (ICMM) was held in New Delhi. It was organised by Armed Forces Medical Services (AFMS), Ministry of Defence (MoD).
  • The Defence of Andaman and Nicobar Islands Exercise (DANX-2017) was conducted under aegis of Andaman & Nicobar Command from 20 to 24 November 2017.
  • The world’s fastest supersonic cruise missile BrahMos was successfully test fired from Indian Air Force’s (IAF) Sukhoi-30MKI fighter jet for the first.
  • The Union Defence Ministry has approved procurement of 260 Software Defined Radios (SDR), a naval communication sets for Indian Navy at cost of Rs. 490 crore to ramp up surveillance on the high seas.
  • The 2017 International Multilateral Maritime Search and Rescue Exercise (IMMSAREX) was held under the aegis of Indian Ocean Naval Symposium (IONS) in Bangladesh from November 26 to 28,  2017.
  • Indian Coast Guard (ICG) conducted the Regional Level Marine Oil Pollution Response Exercise named ‘Clean Sea-2017’ at sea off Port Blair, Andaman & Nicobar Islands.
  • India and Singapore have signed Bilateral Agreement for Navy Cooperation that will allow Indian Navy ships logistical support, including refueling at Singapore’s Changi Naval Base located near disputed South China Sea (SCS).

Defence Current Affairs December 2017

  • Indian Navy Day is observed every year on 4 December to celebrate achievements and role of the naval force to the country. This year is 46th Navy Day.
  • The Combined Military exercise ‘Ajeya Warrior- 2017’ between India and the UK was held at Mahajan Field Firing Range near Bikaner of Rajasthan. It was third joint military exercise between India and UK. The first exercise was conducted in 2013 at Belgaum, Karnataka and second exercise was held in 2015 in UK.
  • The Surface to Air Missile (SAM) AKASH was successfully tested with indigenous radio frequency seeker against target UAV Banshee. It was successfully launched from Launch Complex-III at ITR Chandipur.
  • South Korea and United States have launched Vigilant Ace, their largest-ever joint aerial drills. The exercise comes after North Korea tested Hwasong-15, its most advanced and powerful Inter Continental Ballistic Missile (ICBM) as part of its weapons programme.
  • The Indian Armed Forces Flag Day is observed every year on December 7 to honour the soldiers, airmen and sailors of India who fought on the borders to safeguard country’s honour.
  • Godrej Aerospace has won order from BrahMos Aerospace Pvt. Ltd. (BAPL) for supply of additional 100 units airframe fuel management systems for BrahMos Air-Launched Cruise Missile. Godrej Aerospace is unit of Godrej & Boyce Mfg. Co. Ltd. It has been associated with BrahMos since 2000 and most recently it had completed supply of its 100th airframe for the missile.
  • The eight edition of India, Maldives bilateral military exercise EKUVERIN 2017 was held in India in Belagavi, Karnataka. The aim of the exercise was to conduct military training between armies of both countries with emphasis on counter insurgency, counter terrorism operations (CICT Ops).
  • Prime Minister Narendra Modi has commissioned scorpene-class submarine INS Kalvari into the Indian Navy in Mumbai, Maharashtra. It is first of the six Scorpene-class submarines built under the strategic Project 75 built by Mazagon Dock Limited (MDL) with assistance and technology transfer from France’s DCNS. The commissioning comes days after Indian Navy observed the golden jubilee of its submarine wing.
  • Indian Navy in collaboration with Sri Lankan counterpart has successfully completed second phase of joint oceanographic survey conducted off the South Western Coast of Sri Lanka. The Indian side has handed over the survey charts to the Commander of the Sri Lankan Navy. The survey had commenced in October with the arrival of Indian Naval Ship Sutlej in Sri Lanka.
  • The Southern Command of Indian Army conducted major army exercise called ‘Hamesha Vijayee’ in deserts of Rajasthan from December 16 to 22, 2017. The purpose of the exercise was to evaluate capability of armed forces to strike deep into enemy territory in an integrated air-land battle.
  • An Offshore Patrol Vessel (OPV) named ICGS Sujay was recently commissioned into Indian Coast Guard (ICG). It is sixth and last in the series of six 105m OPV built indigenously by Goa Shipyard Limited for ICG.
  • The 11th edition of Naseem-Al-Bahr (Sea Breeze) 2017 Naval exercise between India and Oman was held at Said Bin Sultan Naval Base, Wudam in Oman.
  • Indigenously developed Prithvi Advanced Air Defence (AAD) supersonic interceptor missile was successfully test-fired from a test range in Chandipur in Odisha. It is capable of destroying any incoming ballistic missile in low altitude.

Defence Current Affairs January 2018

  • The Defence Ministry has given its final approvals for the procurement of 131 Barak missiles for Indian Navy and 240 precision-guided munitions (PGM) for Indian Air Force (IAF) together estimated at Rs.1,714 crore. The proposals were cleared by Defence Minister Nirmala Sitharaman. It is a regular procurement through the revenue expenditure.
  • China has successfully developed new underwater surveillance network to help its submarines get stronger lock on targets while protecting nation’s interests along maritime Silk Road, which also includes Indian Ocean. The project is part of unprecedented military expansion fuelled by China’s desire to challenge United States in world’s oceans.
  • On January 10, 2018, the Corps of Army Air Defence celebrated its 25th raising day. Corps of Army Air Defence is one of the active corps of Indian army tasked with protection of Indian air spaces from enemy aircrafts and missiles, specially below 5000 feet.
  • The Union Ministry of Defence (MoD) has approved procurement of P-8I Training Solution for Indian Navy and Low Intensity Conflict Electronic Warfare System (LICEWS) for Indian Army at total cost of Rs 2419.32 crore.
  • Indian Navy has decommissioned INS Nirbhik and INS Nirghat warships at Naval Dockyard, Mumbai (Maharashtra), after a glorious 30 and 28 years respectively in the service of the nation.
  • The Indian Coast Guard (ICG) has commissioned a state-of-the-art patrol vessel at Karaikal in the Union Territory of Puducherry. It was commissioned by Puducherry Chief Minister V Narayanasamy. With the commissioning of the Coast Guard station at Karaikal now has five vessels.
  • The biennial search and rescue exercise between Indian Coast Guard (ICG) and Japan Coast Guard (JCG) was held near Chennai, Tamil Nadu in Bay of Bengal. This was eighth such in series of ‘National Maritime Search and Rescue Workshop and Exercise’. Ships and aircraft of Coast Guards from India and Japan, Indian Navy and Indian Air Force (IAF) and National Institute of Ocean Technology (NIOT) took part in it.
  • China’s People’s Liberation Army Navy has commissioned Rizhao, a new missile frigate, in a naval port in Dalian, China. It is China’s indigenous missile frigate named after Rizhao city in Shandong Province of China.
  • Indigenously developed long-range surface-to-surface Agni-5 ballistic missile was successfully test fired successfully from Abdul Kalam Wheeler Island, Odisha.
  • The Defence Acquisition Council (DAC) chaired by Union Defence Minister Nirmala Sitharaman has cleared procurement proposal of 72,400 assault rifles and 93,895 carbines on fast track basis for Rs 3,547 crore.
  • Alpha Design Technologies Ltd. has signed Rs. 45-crore deal with Ministry of Defence to supply indigenous simulators for gunnery and missile firing from BMP II vehicles to Indian Army.
  • The second indigenously built offshore patrol vessel (OPV) named built by Larsen and Toubro (L&T) Shipyard for Indian Coast Guard (ICG) was launched at Kattupalli Shipyard, Tamil Nadu. It is expected to be inducted into service by September 2018 after trials on the equipment.
  • Indian Navy has launched Scorpene submarine INS Karanj at the Mazagon Dock Shipbuilders Ltd (MDL), Mumbai, Maharashtra. It the third Scorpene class submarine built by MDL under ambitious Project 75 of the Indian Navy.
  • The India-Vietnam Bilateral Army Exercise (VINBAX-2018) was conducted at Jabalpur in Madhya Pradesh. It is the first military exercise between the two countries. The six day-long military exercise (from January 29 to February 3, 2018) was conducted as part of joint training undertaken with friendly foreign countries by Indian Army.

Defence Current Affairs February 2018

  • The Maratha Light Infantry celebrated 250 years of its existence on 4 February 2018. The first battalion of regiment was raised as ‘Second Battalion Bombay Sepoys’ on this day in 1768.
  • State-run Hindustan Aeronautics Ltd for first time has successfully flown home-made 5.8-tonne Light Combat Helicopter (LCH) with its own automatic flight control system. The 20 minute maiden flight of the multirole copter was flawless with the engagement of the flight control system throughout.
  • Indigenously developed short-range nuclear capable ballistic Agni-1 was successfully test-fired from mobile launcher located at Integrated Test Range of Dr Abdul Kalam Island (Wheeler Island) off the Odisha.
  • The Chief of US Air Force, General David L Goldfein flew a sortie in indigenous Light Combat Aircraft (LCA) Tejas at the Indian Air Force (IAF) station in Jodhpur, Rajasthan. With this he became first foreign military chief to fly Tejas aircraft. He was accompanied by Air Vice Marshal AP Singh as a co-pilot during the short flight.
  • China’s People’s Liberation Army Air Force (PLAAF) has commissioned its new generation J-20 fourth-generation stealth fighter into combat service. With this, China became second country in world to commissioned domestically developed stealth aircraft after United States.
  • The Union Ministry of Defence (MoD) has constituted 13-member Raksha Mantri Advisory Committee on Ministry of Defence Capital Projects (RMCOMP).  It will be headed by former secretary Vinay Sheel Oberoi.
  • Indian Army is contributing approximately 2300 personnel to support United Nations Peacekeeping Missions to South Sudan & (UNMISS) in order to bring peace and normalcy in the war-torn country.
  • The Indian Navy has unveiled the Integrated Automatic Aviation Meteorological System (IAAMS) at INS Garuda, naval air station located in Kochi, Kerala. It is overall fourth air station installed with this integrated system.
  • Tri-service maritime exercise ‘Paschim Lehar’ was held off India’s western coast with an aim to build interoperability between Indian Navy, Indian Army, Indian Air Force and Coast Guard.
  • The Defence Acquisition Council chaired by Defence Minister has approved capital acquisition of 7.4 lakh assault rifles, 17,000 light machine guns, 5,719 sniper rifles and Mareech advanced torpedo decoy systems for Indian Navy worth Rs. 15,935 crore. DAC is Defence Ministry’s highest decision-making body on procurement.

Defence Current Affairs July 2018

  • The Union Ministry of Defence has sanctioned construction of 17 new baffle firing ranges at various Military Stations, Cantonments, Training Establishments. The proposed baffle shooting ranges can facilitate firing from 300 to 500 meters.
  • Indigenous fighter aircraft Tejas of No 45 Squadron (The Flying Daggers) of Indian Air Force (IAF) has formally commenced operations from Sulur Air Force Station in Tamil Nadu. With deployment of Tejas, its squadron ‘Flying Daggers’ took up active wartime role towards safeguarding national skies.
  • India and Bangladesh have agreed to institute Coordinated Patrol (CORPAT) as an annual exercise between navies of two neighbouring countries. The first edition of CORPAT between two navies was inaugurated by Indian Navy’s Chief Admiral Sunil Lanba during his visit to Bangladesh. The aim Navy Chief’s visit was to consolidate bilateral defence relations between India and Bangladesh and to explore new avenues for naval cooperation.
  • Six global aircraft manufacturers have responded Indian Air Force’s (IAF) Request for Information (RFI) to supply 110 fighter aircrafts to replace its ageing fleet of MiG-21s and MiG-27s, which are being phased out of service. Of the six bids received, Lockheed Martin F-16 and SAAB Gripen are single-engine fighters, while Dassault Rafale, Boeing F-18, Eurofighter Typhoon and United Aircraft Corporation MiG-35 are twin-engine fighters.
  • State-owned defence electronics company Bharat Electronics Ltd (BEL) has signed memorandum of understanding (MoU) with Saab for jointly marketing L-Band 3D air surveillance radar (RAWL-03) which is co-developed by the companies. Saab is Swedish aerospace and defence firm that serves global market with world-leading products, services and solutions in military defence and civil security.
  • Indian Army has singed Memorandum of Understanding (MoU) with State bank of India (SBI) on Defence Salary Package. It is revised version of first MoU between SBI and Indian Army signed in 2011 and was renewed again in February 2015 to add suited requirements of serving soldiers, pensioners and families.
  • DRDO has successfully test-fired supersonic cruise missile under extreme weather conditions, as part of the service life extension programme for Indian Army. The missile was fired from a mobile autonomous launcher from the Integrated Test Range at Balasore, Odisha.
  • Indian Army is going to resume trials of US-made M777 ultralight howitzer in the Pokhran firing range, Rajasthan. During the trails local ammunition will be used and tentatively 100 to 150 rounds will be fired. The trials will begin after they were suspended in September 2017 following a barrel burst caused by faulty ammunition during firing.
  • The 19th anniversary of Kargil Vijay Diwas was celebrated across India on 26 July 2018 to commemorate the success of Operation Vijay and remember brave sacrifice of Indian soldiers during 1999 India-Pakistan Kargil War.
  • Indian Air Force (IAF) for first time will participate in multinational air exercise Pitch Black – 18 (PB-18) in Australia hosted Royal Australian Air Force (RAAF). It will be three week multi-national large force employment exercise (27 July to 17 August 2018) conducted from RAAF Base Darwin and RAAF Base Tindal.
  • Two types of indigenously built high-power multi-fuel engines V-46-6 and V92S2 were handed over to Indian Army for first time under Make in India. These engines were manufactured by Engine Factory Avadi (EFA), a unit of Ordnance Factory Board (OFB).
  • Indian Army has awarded Rs. 100-crore contract for 81 high mobility 10×10 vehicles to India’s leading vehicle manufacturer Ashok Leyland. This is for first time Indian vehicle manufacturer will deliver heavy duty, high mobility vehicles for the launchers. This will reduce dependency on imports.
  • Defence Acquisition Council (DAC) chaired by Defence Minister Nirmala Sitharaman approval proposal for acquisition of 8 Fast Patrol Vessels (FPVs) for Indian Coast Guard at an approximate cost of Rs 800 crore. It also approved platform specific guidelines for procurement of Naval Utility helicopters. Similar guidelines for the other categories will be issued soon. DAC is Defence Ministry’s highest decision-making body on capital procurement of Indian Armed Forces (Army, Navy and Air Force).
  • India is in talks with United States to procure National Advanced Surface-to-Air Missile System-II (NASAMS-II), an advanced air defence system at $1 billion to defend National Capital Region (NCR) from aerial attacks. The proposal is in Acceptance of Necessity (AoN) stage now which was approved by Defence Acquisition Council (DAC) chaired by Defence Minister Nirmala Sitharaman.
  • Defence Acquisition Council (DAC) chaired by Union Defence Minister Nirmala Sitharaman has approved implementation of Strategic Partnership guidelines. It is considered as major step towards boosting private sector participation in domestic defence manufacturing. The policy had come into effect in May 2017 but progress was delayed due to lack of specific guidelines.

 

Defence Current Affairs August 2018

  • China successfully tested its first cutting-edge hypersonic “waverider” flight vehicle (aircraft) Xingkong-2 (Starry Sky-2). Waverider is flight vehicle that flies in atmosphere and uses shockwaves generated by its own hypersonic flight with air to glide at high speed. Currently, United States and Russia have been carrying out similar experiments.
  • Joint military exercise Maitree 2018 between Indian Army and Royal Thai Army was conducted in Thailand from 6 to 19 August 2018. It contributed immensely in developing mutual understanding and bonhomie between armies of both countries in order to counter terrorism.
  • The projects for defence industrial corridor in Aligarh, Uttar Pradesh were launched recently by Union Defence Minister Nirmala Sitharaman and Uttar Pradesh Chief Minister Yogi Adityanath. It was launched as part of the Union Government’s efforts to develop specialised zones dedicated to defence production in the state.
  • Indian Navy has launched Operation Madad, major rescue and relief operation in flood-hit Kerala. Indian Army also has launched Operation Sahyog to rescue people in flood-hit Kerala. Both operations will support rescue and relief efforts of civil administration and National Disaster Relief Force (NDRF).
  • Defence Acquisition Council (DAC) chaired by Defence Minister Nirmala Sitharaman approved procurement of six indigenously designed and manufactured Next Generation Offshore Patrol Vessels (NGOPVs) for Indian Navy. DAC is Defence Ministry’s highest decision-making body on capital procurement of Indian Armed Forces (Army, Navy and Air Force).
  • Iran has unveiled Fateh Mobin (Bright Conqueror) next generation short-range ballistic missile capable of striking targets on land and sea. The missile has successfully passed its tests. It was unveiled as part of Iran’s thrust to further boost its defence capabilities at time of rising tensions with United States.
  • Israeli Navy has announced to procure multi-purpose Barak 8 missile defence system, jointly developed by India and Israel. It will be used by Israeli Navy’s Sa’ar-6 corvettes to expand its operational capabilities of Israeli navy, including defence of Israel’s territorial and exclusive economic zone (EEZ) and strategic facilities from diversified threats.
  • Prime Minister Narendra Modi during his addresses to the nation on occasion of 72nd Independence Day from Red Fort announced that permanent commission will be granted to serving women officers of armed forces. Henceforth, women officers who have been selected through Short Service Commission (SSC) in defence forces will now have option to take up permanent commission (PC).
  • Indigenously developed Helicopter launched Anti-Tank Guided Missile (ATGM) ‘HELINA’ was successfully flight tested from Indian Army Helicopter at Pokhran range. The weapon system was tested for its full range.
  • The Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO) has successfully tested indigenously developed light weight glide bomb Smart Anti Airfield Weapon (SAAW) dropped from an Indian Air Force (IAF) aircraft. Total of three tests with different release conditions and ranges were conducted at Chandan range near Pokhran in Rajasthan.
  • Joint platoon level military exercise Maitree 2018 between India and Thailand was conducted in Thailand from 6 to 19 August 2018. It was platoon level exercise between Indian Army and Royal Thai Army that comprised of infantry component.
  • Pitch Black – 18 (PB-18), biennia multinational air exercise hosted by Royal Australian Air Force (RAAF) concluded recently Darwin, Australia. It was the largest Pitch Black ever conducted by Australia, which saw participation of 16 nations and more than 140 aircraft, the current edition.
  • Indian Airforce has formally launched The Stores, Proactive, Efficient and Expeditious Despatch of Extra Size/ Wt Consignment (SPEEDEX) contract. It was concluded in June 2018 between with Balmer Lawrie & Co Ltd and Ashok Travel and Tours for air and surface component respectively.
  • Iran has unveiled first domestically manufactured fighter jet nicknamed Kowsar. It was unveiled at defence show held in the capital city of Tehran.
  • The Shanghai Cooperation Organization (SCO) Peace Mission 2018 was held in Chebarkul, Russia. Military contingents of the all eight SCO member nations (China, Russia, Kyrgyzstan, Tajikistan, Kazakhstan, India and Pakistan) participated in this exercise. The exercise was aimed at enhancing cooperation between member states to deal with growing threat of terrorism and extremism. It was for first time since independence, India and Pakistan simultaneously took part military exercise, though armies of two rival neighbouring countries had earlier worked together in United Nations (UN) peacekeeping missions.
  • Indian Air Force (IAF) launched Trans-Himalayan Mountain Terrain Biking Expedition (THE MTB) as part of its celebration of 86th Anniversary on 8 October 2018. The expedition was started on 17 Aug 2018 from Daulat Beg Oldie (DBO) in Ladakh for Kibithu in Arunachal Pradesh. DBO and Kibithu are two forward most outposts of India in North and in East with DBO being highest airfield in the world located altitude of 16614 feet.
  • Defence Acquisition Council (DAC) has approved procurement of 14 Vertically Launched Short Range Missile Systems. Of these, 10 systems will be indigenously developed and remaining four will be imported. These missile systems will help boost self-defence capability of ships against anti-ship missiles. DAC is Union Defence Ministry’s highest decision making body on capital procurement of Indian Armed Forces (Army, Navy and Air Force). It is chaired by Defence Minister.
  • Defence Acquisition Council (DAC) has approved procurement 24 anti-submarine capable multi role helicopters to enhance capability of Indian Navy at sea. This approval will allow Government to sign contract US based aviation giant Lockheed Martin for purchasing 24 MH-60R helicopters for Indian Navy.
  • Defence Acquisition Council (DAC) chaired by Defence Minister Nirmala Sitharaman has approved procurement of 111 utility helicopters for Indian Navy at cost of over Rs 21,000 crore. DAC is Union Defence Ministry’s highest decision making body on capital procurement of Indian Armed Forces (Army, Navy and Air Force).
  • Defence Acquisition Council (DAC) has approved procurement of 150 indigenously designed and developed 155 mm Advanced Towed Artillery Gun Systems for Indian Army at approximate cost of Rs 3,364.78 crores. This procurement will further quest for modernisation of Armed forces.
  • Russia is going to conduct Vostok-2018 (East-2018) military exercise in central and eastern Russian military districts from September 11 to 15, 2018. It will be biggest war games ever conducted by Russia since Zapad-81 (West-81) exercise conducted by erstwhile Soviet Union in 1981 which had seen involvement about 100,000 to 150,000 troops.
  • India’s only aircraft carrier INS Vikramaditya for the first time will be fitted with marine hydraulic system to boost the air operations of the ship. It will be fitted with two marine hydraulic systems whose technical terms go by “GS-1MF” and “GS-3”.
  • Indian Naval Ship Sahyadri has reached Port of Darwin, Australia to participate in multilateral regional maritime exercise KAKADU 2018 conducted by Australia. The ship was earlier deployed in South China Sea and Pacific Ocean for over four months and had represented Indian Navy in multinational exercises MALABAR 18 at Guam and RIMPAC 18 at Hawaii.
  • India has inked $346 million loan agreement with Asian Development Bank (ADB) to finance Karnataka State Highways Improvement III Project (KSHIP-III) for improvement of over 400 km of state highways in Karnataka. This will help in enhancement of connectivity and access to economic centres across 12 districts in Karnataka.

Defence Current Affairs September 2018

  • India, Kazakhstan joint army exercise KAZIND will be conducted between Indian and Kazakhstan Army in Otar region, Kazakhstan from 10 to 23 September 2018. This will be third joint military exercise between two countries which have history of extensive cooperation in defence arena. The second edition of the exercise was held in India in 2017.
  • Ukraine has launched annual joint military exercise named Rapid Trident with United States and other NATO (North Atlantic Treaty Organization) member countries. The exercise will place in western Ukrainian village of Starychi from September 2 to 15, 2018. Its main goal is to practice countering armed aggression in conditions of the hybrid war. It is being conducted week before Russia holds its biggest military exercise Vostok-2018 since Cold War, in eastern part of the country and with participation of China and Mongolia.
  • Cyient Solutions & Systems Pvt. Ltd has bagged order from Indian Army to supply SpyLite mini UAV (unmanned aerial vehicle) systems for high altitude aerial surveillance. Cyient Solutions & Systems Pvt. Ltd is joint venture between IT firm Cyient and BlueBird Aero Systems of Israel.
  • American security and aerospace giant Lockheed Martin has entered into an agreement with Tata Advanced Systems Limited (TASL) to manufacture wings of its F-16 fighter jets in India. Producing F-16 wings in India will support Central Government’s flagship ‘Make in India’ programme and strengthen Lockheed Martin’ strategic partnership with TASL.
  • State-run Bharat Electronics Ltd (BEL) has bagged order worth Rs. 9,200 crore for supply of seven Long Range Surface-to-Air Missile (LRSAM) systems to Indian Navy. In this regard, it has entered into a contract with Mazagon Dock Limited (MDL) and Garden Reach Shipbuilders and Engineers (GRSE). The LRSAM will be fitted onboard seven ships to be built by these two shipbuilders. This was highest-ever single value order bagged by BEL. This contract has pushed order book of BEL beyond Rs 50,000 crore for the first time in single financial year.
  • Indian Air Force (IAF) has successfully carried out first ever midair refuelling of indigenously developed light combat aircraft (LCA) Tejas. The midair refuelling test conducted involved dry linkup, meaning no fuel was actually transferred between IAF Il-78 tanker and Tejas fighter jet through its air-to-air refuelling probe.
  • India and United States will conduct their annual combat exercise “Yudh Abhyas” at Chaubatia in Uttarakhand from 16 to 29 September, 2018. The exercise will be held soon after both countries hold their inaugural top-level “2+2” dialogue in New Delhi.
  • India, Sri Lanka joint naval exercise SLINEX-2018 was held at Trincomalee, Sri Lanka from September 7 to 13, 2018. SLINEX exercise started in 2005 was previously held once in two years and now it has been converted to annual event this year onwards.
  • India, Mongolia joint exercise Nomadic Elephant 2018 commenced at Mongolian Armed Forces (MAF) Five Hills Training Area in Ulaanbaatar (capital of Mongolia). Nomadic Elephant is annual bilateral military exercise started in 2006. It is designed to strengthen partnership between Indian Army and Mongolian Armed Forces.
  • Indian Air Force (IAF) successfully carried out first ever mid-air refuelling of indigenously developed Light Combat Aircraft (LCA) Tejas MK-1 over Gwalior, Madhya Pradesh. With this, India joins in elite group of countries which have successfully developed air-to-air refuelling system for military aircraft.
  • Hindustan Shipyard Limited (HSL) is gearing up to undertake sea trials of India’s first ocean surveillance ship by end of September 2018 or first week of October 2018. This ship is now simply referred as VC 11184 and will be formally named after its induction into the Indian Navy.
  • The first field training military exercise MILEX-18, as part of the Bay of Bengal initiative for multi-sectoral technical and economic cooperation (BIMSTEC) commenced at Foreign Training Node at Aundh in Pune, Maharashtra. All member BIMSTEC countries, except Thailand and Nepal will take active part in this exercise. Thailand and Nepal will only be sending group of observers.
  • The second edition of Nepal-China joint military exercise named Mt Everest Friendship Exercise-2018 (Sagarmatha Friendship-2018) commenced in China’s southwestern Sichuan province. The 12 day long joint exercise will focus on combating terror and disaster management trainings. Sagarmatha is the Nepali name for Mt Everest, which stands in between both the countries.
  • Indian Coast Guard (ICG) has commissioned indigenously built patrol vessel ICGS Vijaya in Chennai, Tamil Nadu. It is second in the series of 98 m offshore patrol vessels (OPVs) commissioned by ICG.
  • India and United States joint military exercise Yudh Abhyas 2018 commenced at Chaubattia, Uttarakhand. It will be fourteenth edition of exercise in Yudh Abhyas series which was started in 2004 under US Army Pacific Partnership Program. This will be fourth time exercise will be conducted at Chaubattia in Uttarakhand.
  • Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO) conducted first successful trials of indigenously developed third generation Man Portable Anti-Tank Guided Missile (MPATGM). Two rounds of missile were flight tested in operational configuration in two days from Ahmednagar range in Maharashtra.

Defence Current Affairs Questions 2018 – 2018 [All Months]

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CDSE II 2017 Solid Last Week Preparation Tips by Indus Academics

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cds 2 2017 study material

The Question with any UPSC standard exam is “How to crack it”! Worries amongst CDSE Aspirants are on extreme high as Exam date is only a week away! Calm down Guys, You are doing fine ! Believe in yourself! Anxiety is fine, stress is not!

As UPSC combined Defence services exam (CDS-II) 2017 is going to be held on November 19, 2017, exactly a week from now. The right kind of preparation in the last few days can yield excellent results, whereas unplanned and haphazard revision can cause you to score badly in the exam.

The most general query we receive as an Institution of repute is  -“ What to do in the last week before the exam? How to revise quickly? What about Finishing touch? Can I boost my score in last 7 days ”?

The answer from our side is “ YES, You can!” Focus more on strengthening your weak points as you have already have a good command over your strengths. Indus Academics has come up with Unique Subject wise  Approach for crack CDSE-II 2017 Exam after SWOT Analysis of various Parameters concerned with UPSC Exams Including CDSE/CAPF etc.

Let’s have a Subject wise preparation strategy  in the last week :

Polity: 

Make a 2- page list of Important articles + schedule items +Major judgements+ Unique provisions  associated to these articles.(Similar to what we Indus did for Quality Improvement Program for CDSE-II 2017). Make a list of Important political amendments+ Bills +constitutional provisions+ Committes + commissions in News. Solve 15 Master questions related to each major topics of Polity like DPSP/FR’s/ Preamble / Parliament / Bills/Local & Urban government/Constitutional –Non constitutional bodies etc. (You must do this strategy to ensure minimum 50% accuracy in Polity Questions of UPSC CDSE paper). You can download CDSE (II) 2017 Quality Improvement Program Polity Sample Questions  from here:

 http://www.indusacademics.in/download/sample-content

Economics: (Very Important: can be revised in 7-8 hours)

Focus on Banking Reforms +RBI steps + Monetary policy related terms. Make a list of major economic policies + fiscal measures taken by government along with clear definition of terms like GDP/NDP/ GNP/ NP/NNP etc. Revise the list of popular terms of Economic survey +Union budget+ current economic initiatives. (You can download sample QIP Program Question and discussion from here:

http://www.indusacademics.in/download/sample-content

Environment and ecology: Not much important for CDSE exam although basic terms like Eutrophication / Bioaccumulation /DDT etc must be kept in mind.

Science and technology: No need to read static portion except NCERTs. Just watch Science Tech Questions discussion series on Indus Academics YouTube channel (https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=tCG562LvPO8) and quickly recap Indus Science Tech terms in news Booklet “Sanjeevni-Booti”. Focus on biology and public health type topics first, then cover basics of chemistry and physics.

Note:  Must revise Indus Current Affairs booklet for Science & Technology which consists of Health, Space, Defence, Technologies in news for last one year.

 

History:  Focus on 20th Century till 1947 then read 1857 till end of 19th Century. After that, start with ancient India. Read Sufism, Bhakti, art, culture etc in the medieval portion. Indus Academics has already put master Question discussion Video on Modern History of QIP (https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=9FR0HlK1IAc) which is more than sufficient to score in CDSE-II 2019.

 

Defense: This is most scoring section in CDSE paper .Cover all the Missiles/Technology/DRDO  & ISRO achievements , inventions, joint exercise, etc. which are generally directly asked. Even one hour of study can let you get 4-5 questions correct easily. You can read Defense/Inetrnal security  Compilation from Indus Science and Tech Current Affair booklet. Watch Security videos at Indus Academics YouTube channel.

International Relations: Mostly current Affairs based. Scoring and Investment-output ratio is quite high for this section. Cover all major Summits like SAARC, Disputes like OBOR etc to score high in this section. You can also watch Indus Academics channel for Important International Affairs in News exclusively for CDSE-II 2017 compiled by Indus Mentor & UPSC Exam Expert Er. Kunal Singh. 

Sports/Person In News: Quickly go through current affairs from these areas using any handouts. These are questions involving prominent persons such as who is CEO of NITI Aayog/CBI Chief/BBB head etc, who won the recently concluded world cup T20, etc. Generally CDSE paper ask at least  one such question .Indus Academics channel has also compiled List of Person in News which can be used to cover all in 20 minutes. 

Geography: Focus on  Indian Economic Geography (Industries Location/ Minerals / Tranport /Infrastructure). Then cover Physicsal Indian Geography with Climate+ vegetation which will ensure more than 60% score in Geography section. You can also solve Indus “Sanjeevni-Booti” Booklet which is actually compilation of Quality MCQ’s along with current Affairs.

Mathematics: A Unique   quality Improvement Program Mathematics videos will definitely be helpful where Team Indus Mathematic Expert Moksh Goyal has elaborated some exclusive qualitative question for recap

Note: Students should focus on covering current affairs related to Economics,  Science, Defence and International relations. Special emphasis needs to be given to static part of Modern History and Polity in order to score high in GS paper. Aspirants can download relevant CDSE Study material as well as list of Important terms in News from Indus academics website www.indusacademics.in

Good luck from Team Indus Academics. Wish You all the best for Exam.

Watch Video solution/Explanation of CDSE II paper 2017 on Indus Academics YouTube channel a day after CDSE (II) 2017.

For more preparation material call  [email protected] 
 0172-4014825 , +91-8264579087, +91-8264357356 +91-9872007750

Cleared NDA SSB Interview In First Attempt

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NDA SSB Interview

Owing gratitude to the Almighty, I feel honored to write my success story today. An ordinary boy with extraordinary dreams was I a few months before when a call letter from SELECTION CENTRE SOUTH changed my life forever. So, here I am, Siddharth Vajpayee belonging to Lakhimpur-Kheri, a very remote district of Uttar Pradesh. Currently, I am pursuing my B.A. from HINDU COLLEGE, University of Delhi. Nothing worth having comes easy and so was my journey from being an ordinary intermediate pass-out to a recommended candidate flying with the hopes of wearing maroon beret in future. But this journey was not my alone; it was a struggle of many people who were present throughout the ups and downs of my life. To mention a few,

  1. First of all, my parents, my elder brother-cum-mentor, my teachers and few other special ones in my life – They have always been my pillar of strength motivating me to do all the hard work required.
  2. SSBCRACK – You just cannot miss this site if you are a serious defence aspirant. It kept me updated with all the recent national and international affairs.

It all began when I was in my 12th Standard and made up my mind that,” YES! I want to join armed forces.” I read many success stories on SSBCRACK to keep myself motivated and always thought that one day I would also share mine, and I guess here it is.

My SSB for the NDA was scheduled to begin from 28 September 2017. I boarded my train at 8 o’clock on 26 September from Hazrat Nizamuddin junction, Delhi. After a journey of 2 nights and a day (crossing 4 States ) finally, I reached my destination,i.e. KSR Railway Station, Bangalore. It was my first SSB interview so I was a bit nervous but as I met other candidates, I started to feel light.

DAY 0: REPORTING

2:30 PM, The bus arrived to take us to Selection Centre South. We were a total of 42 candidates on the bus (Ours was the last batch for NDA 139 course). Showing our ID cards, we got entry into the bus. We all reached SCS by 3 PM. Then started Documentation and Form filling. After that we were given chest numbers (mine was 21) and our phones were taken away from us. Then we were shown our accommodation and after that we had our dinner (Trust me, it was really tasty). We, a total of 42, spent our first night at the barracks. It was real fun as most of us shared our experiences, stories, jokes. I was already comfortable by then without any nervousness.

DAY 1: SCREENING

We all reported at the testing area. The first test was OIR (verbal and non- verbal tests).I attempted most of the questions in due time.

Test 2 was the PPDT, a picture was shown for 30 seconds and a time of 4 minutes was given to write a story, which was then followed by individual narration and group discussion (so as to make a common story). The picture was a bit blurred and it portrayed  two people sitting opposite to each other on a table discussing something. I wrote a simple story of two friends who went to a park with lake in order to relieve themselves after the hectic schedule of their Board Exams.  My narration was good, clear and bold (Tip:-while narrating try to make eye contact with other candidates). Then as the last candidate finished his narration, I initiated the Group Discussion. It went very peacefully, as most of us gave our ideas and we made a common story as well. Then the Testing Officers asked us to leave the room.

Results arrived, and 20 candidates were screened in .  My new chest number was10.

DAY 2: PSYCHOLOGY

The whole series of psychology tests was  a bit tiring for me as I was giving these tests for the first time. In WAT, a word was shown for 15 seconds and we were supposed to write the first thought that  came to our mind in a form of a sentence (Tip: It’s not a sentence formation test, just write the idea that strikes your mind on seeing the word) . I attempted all the 60 words in WAT well in time .  In Situation Reaction Test, I was able to attempt only 41  SRT’s out of 60. I was able to write all the 12 stories comfortably(12th picture was a blank one). In the Self Description ,  every individual has its own way of writing about himself, I wrote in the paragraph form   whatever I feel about myself.  (Tip:- Don’t bluff, just speak the truth .Giving an insight of your personality is what’s expected of you. Your lie will be caught sooner or later!)

As a fresher, I was happy with my performance in the psych tests.

DAY 3 & 4: GTO

GTO tasks were completely different from other tasks in SSB Interview. The GTO series is purely based on our communication skills , physical fitness and our ability to take decisions and lead from the front. 3rd  day started with Group Discussion. We were given two topics, one after the other. In both the GDs I gave ample points and most of the members of my group agreed with my points.

In GPE ( Group Planning Exercise), I was able to write my individual solution within time. And after GD, the common solution was mostly in accord to my solution.

In the PGT (Progressive Group Task), our group cleared all the 4 phases. Most of the candidates gave ideas . In HGT (Half Group Task), I was leading my team from the front with basic ideas and we completed the task  comfortably. GOR  and the Lecturette went well for me. In the individual obstacles, I was able to complete 6 obstacles in 3 minutes.

In Command Task, I was called by 3 members of the group as a subordinate. And my Command Task went all well. I gave my idea and the GTO asked me to leave. And in FGT too, I performed well.NDA SSB Interview

Here in GTO series, we have to work as a team and coordinate together.

On Day 4 , I had my Interview too. After the GTO tests , I was asked to  report in  the candidates waiting hall for Interview at 1 in the noon. I reported there, after waiting for half an hour or so I was called (mine was the last interview). I wished the IO (President of the 12 SSB )and entered the room. At the beginning, the IO asked me some really easy questions about my surname to make me comfortable. Then he asked me about my performance in my Tests. After some time he grilled me with a rapid-fire consisting of 12-13 questions about my education, family, friends, and future career options. I replied most of the questions but I knew that I had forgotten few questions so I gently asked him to repeat, which he did. He continued to grill me with rapid-fire questions throughout the interview. He asked about diplomatic relations of India with other countries, The Panama Gate issue (Of which I had no idea so I told him with a smile “sorry sir I have no idea about it.”) , Referendum in Europe and recent Defence deals. He also asked me why I want to join the defence forces ? He seemed to be  satisfied with most of  my answers. With this, after one and a half hour my interview came to an end. (Tip: Smile! It always helps)

CDS 2018 Study Material

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DAY 5: CONFERENCE

At last, the day came when our fate was going to be decided. After the closing address by Deputy  President, we were called one by one. The conference is the day in which a candidate’s fate is decided in front of the panel of Assessing officers of selection centre . After some time, I was called to face my first (hopefully last) conference of my life. The conference started with some normal questions  about my experience at SSB. Then they  asked me to rate my performance. They also asked me how I prepared for my first SSB Interview? Then they asked me about my stay and any suggestions, and the conference came to an end.

Now comes the most difficult part of the SSB, in which you can expect to find many of the candidates praying to God, with their fingers crossed. Then the officer came and announced the result .When he spoke chest number 10, I was completely blank, emotions overpowered me, somehow I managed to spell  out  my name. I cannot explain that moment in words . As I am writing this, I still recall that moment , rather a lifetime experience for me. Out of 20 screened in candidates, 5 got recommended, and I was the only Fresher. It makes me believe that-

If you can dream-and not make dreams your master;   

If you can think-and not make thoughts your aim;

Yours is the Earth and everything that’s in it,   

And-which is more-you’ll be a Man.

Although after Medical Tests, due to eyesight issues, I had to shift from NAVY to ARMY but the merit list is still awaited so fingers crossed.

Still being a recommended candidate, I can proudly say that yes, I HAVE IT  somewhere IN ME!

I AM NOT THE SAME, HAVING SEEN THE MOON SHINE ON THE OTHER SIDE OF THE WORLD.

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