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AFCAT 2 2022 Question Paper 27 August 2022 Shift 1 And Shift 2 [All Sets]

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Across India, a lot of people who want to join the Indian Air Force are taking the AFCAT 2 2022 online test today. SSBCrackExams will publish the AFCAT 2 2022 Question Papers on August 27, 2022, along with the AFCAT 2 2022 Answers key right after the test.

Candidates looking for AFCAT 2 2022 question papers and answer keys for Shift-1 and Shift-2 from 27th August 2022 can find the full set of questions on SSBCrackExams. You can also watch our video lectures about AFCAT 2 2022 answer keys on our “SSBCrackExams App & YouTube channel”. Once we update them, candidates can also get the AFCAT 2 2022 question papers and can download the PDF from the links below.

Also Check: AFCAT 2 2022 Question Paper 26, 27, 28 August [All Sets]

SSB Interview Live Classes 1

The AFCAT 2 2022 test starts on 26th August 2022 and goes until 28th August 2022. Today, 27th August 2022, a lot of aspirants will be appearing for the AFCAT 2 2022 exam. The test is given in two parts, called “Shift 1” and “Shift 2.” Shift 1 will take the test from 9:45 to 11:45, and Shift 2 will take the test from 14:15 to 16:15. Shift 2 will have EKT between 16:30 and 17:15 hours. SSBCrackExams will give you the original test questions from the AFCAT 2 2022 exam on 27th August 2022, from shifts 1 and 2 shared by SSBCrackexams students and followers that are memory-based.

AFCAT 2023 Live Classes 2 1

AFCAT 2 2022 Answer Keys 27 August 2022 – Shift 1 [All Sets] – 12:00 PM [MUST WATCH]

AFCAT 2 2022 Answer Keys 27 August 2022 – Shift 2 [All Sets] – 5:00 PM [MUST WATCH]

Note: Questions shared by SSBCrackexams students and followers that are memory-based.

AFCAT 2 2022 Question Paper (All Sets) – To Be Updated

27th August Shift 1 & 2 AFCAT 2 2022 Question PapersDownload Link
AFCAT 2 2022 27 August Question Paper Shift 1 by SSBCrackExamsLink
AFCAT 2 2022 27 August Question Paper Shift 2 by SSBCrackExamsLink

**NOTE MEMORY-BASED QUESTIONS SHARED BY SSBCRACKEXAMS STUDENTS & FOLLOWERS

Shifts 1 and 2 of the AFCAT 2 2022 Question Paper will be updated on 27th August 2022.

Soon after the test concludes, SSBCrackExams will update the memory-based shift-2 questions for the AFCAT 2 2022 27th August Questions. The AFCAT 2 2022 questions and answer keys are also available to view on our SSBCrackExams App and YouTube page.

Questions and Answers for AFCAT 2 2022 – Shift 1 on 27th August – UPDATED

Synonyms  -Devolve
Ans. Transfer, Transmit

Synonyms – Temporal
Ans. Secular/ Time-related

Q) Which is India’s first nuclear Submarine of the Indian Navy?
Ans. INS Chakra

Q) 1st city to initiate flood early warning system in India
Ans. Kolkata – The Mayor of Kolkata Municipal Corporaton (KMC) has recently launched India’s first Flood Forecasting and Early Warning System (FFEWS) for Kolkata City to help city officials and citizens act decisively to minimize damage before and during disasters.

Q) What is Supernova?
Ans. A supernova is a powerful and luminous explosion of a star. It has the plural form supernovae or supernovas, and is abbreviated SN or SNe. This transient astronomical event occurs during the last evolutionary stages of a massive star or when a white dwarf is triggered into runaway nuclear fusion.

Q) First ballistic missile of India?
Ans. The Prithvi was India’s first indigenously developed ballistic missile produced by the Integrated Guided Missile Development Program (IGMDP).

Q) Shanti Swaroop Bhatnagar Award is related to what?
Ans. Science and Technology

Q) Which anti-tank missile developed by DRDO can be launched from a helicopter?

Ans. Helina

Q) Paralympic motto?
Ans. Spirit in Motion – The symbol also reflects the Paralympic Motto, “Spirit in Motion,” representing the strong will of every Paralympian

Q) What is the Indigenously launched covid vaccine?
Ans. Covaxin

Q) who won gold in 2020 Paralympic javelin throw
Ans. Sumit Antil – Sumit Antil broke the world record thrice in the men’s javelin throw F64 class en route winning India’s second gold medal of the day at the Tokyo 2020 Paralympics. Sumit Antil threw a new world record of 68.55m to win the gold medal.

Q) Which of the following personalities is related to Bahishkrit Bharat?
Ans. Dr. B.R. Ambedkar – Bahishkrit bharat newspaper was founded by B R Ambedkar. This newspaper was published in 1969. It was the Marathi language newspaper.

Q) Recently India has collaborated with which country to develop an air launched UAV?
Ans. USA

Q) Who wrote the book “Why I am an atheist”?
Ans. Bhagat Singh

Q) Whose regime is considered as Golden Age of literature?
Ans. Raja Krishna Dev RayaThe rule of Krishna Deva Raya is known as the golden age of Telugu literature. Eight Telugu poets were regarded as eight pillars of his literary assembly and known as Ashtadiggajas. Krishna Dev Raya himself composed an epic Telugu poem Amuktamalyada.

Q) Global Competitiveness Index (GCI) Released By?
Ans- The World Economic Forum

1What is a Supernova? Ans. A supernova is a powerful and luminous explosion of a star. It has the plural form supernovae or supernovas, and is abbreviated SN or SNe.
2Which is India’s only nuclear powered Submarine? Ans. The Arihant-class ( transl. ‘Slayer of Enemies’ in Sanskrit) is a class of Indian nuclear-powered ballistic missile submarines being built for the Indian Navy.
3Which is India’s first nuclear Submarine of Indian Navy? Ans. INS Chakra
4Which Helicopter was developed by DRDO to launch anti-tank missile? Ans. Helina
5What is the first ballistic missile of India? Ans. The Prithvi was India’s first indigenously developed ballistic missile produced by the Integrated Guided Missile Development Program (IGMDP).
6What is the motto of Paralympics? Ans. Spirit in Motion The symbol also reflects the Paralympic Motto, “Spirit in Motion,” representing the strong will of every Paralympian. The Paralympic Symbol also emphasises the fact that Paralympic athletes are constantly inspiring and exciting the world with their performances: always moving forward and never giving up.
7Asad Ali Khan is related to which musical instrument? Ans. Rudra veena
8Which of the following personalities is related to Bahishkrit Bharat? Ans. Dr. B.R. Ambedkar Bahishkrit bharat newspaper was founded by B R Ambedkar. This newspaper was published in 1969. It was the Marathi language newspaper.
9Recently India has collaborated with which country to develop an air launched UAV? Ans. USA
10What is the Indigenously launched covid vaccine in India? Ans. Covaxin
11Which is the first city to initiate flood early warning system in India? Ans. Kolkata The Mayor of Kolkata Municipal Corporation (KMC) has recently launched India’s first Flood Forecasting and Early Warning System (FFEWS) for Kolkata City to help city officials and citizens act decisively to minimize damage before and during disasters.
12Shanti Swaroop Bhatnagar Award is related to what? Ans. Science and Technology
13Whose reign is considered as Golden Age of literature? Ans. Raja Krishna Dev Raya The rule of Krishna Deva Raya is known as golden age of Telugu literature. Eight Telugu poets were regarded as eight pillars of his literary assembly and known as Ashtadiggajas. Krishna Dev Raya himself composed an epic Telugu poem Amuktamalyada.
14Who wrote the book “Why I am an atheist”? Ans. Bhagat Singh
15Who won gold in 2020 Paralympic javelin throw? Ans. Sumit Antil Sumit Antil broke the world record thrice in the men’s javelin throw F64 class en route winning India’s second gold medal of the day at the Tokyo 2020 Paralympics. Sumit Antil threw a new world record of 68.55m to win the gold medal.
16Which of the following doesn’t cause global warming? Ans. Acetylene Acetylene doesn’t trap the heat that enters the Atmosphere like other Green House gases such as Methane, Carbon dioxide, Sulphur etc. hence, it doesn’t contribute to Global Warming.
17Global Competitiveness Index (GCI) is released By? Ans. The World Economic Forum
18Operation Trident is related With? Ans. Indian Navy Operation Trident was an offensive operation launched by the Indian Navy on Pakistan’s port city of Karachi during the Indo-Pakistani War of 1971. Operation Trident saw the first use of anti-ship missiles in combat in the region
19Heron Drone is from which country? Ans. Israel India has received the delivery of an advanced Israeli drone, Heron TP, as part of a deal signed earlier this year. The Heron TP unmanned aerial vehicles (UAVs) are likely to be deployed for “long surveillance missions” along the Line of Actual Control (LAC), the disputed border between India and China.
20Which of the following elements is a semiconductor? Ans. Gallium
21Who won Tokyo Olympic medal in Javelin Throw? Ans. Neeraj Chopra Neeraj Chopra fought the odds and Johannes Vetter to win the men’s javelin throw gold medal at the Tokyo Olympics. Thanks to Neeraj Chopra, August 7 will always be a Red Letter Day in Indian sporting history. On this day in 2021, Neeraj Chopra won the men’s javelin throw gold medal at the Tokyo 2020 Olympics.
22Match the following – Prairies – North America Downs – Australia Ilanos – South America Pampas – South America
23Match the following – Operation Nistar – Cyclone-hit Yemen Rescue, 2018 Operation Pawan – IPKF to control Jaffna, 1987 Operation Trident – Indo-Pak War, Navy, 1971 Operation Brasstacks – 1986-87, Joint military exercise in Rajasthan
24India hydrocarbon vision 2025 is related to? Ans. The Hydrocarbons Vision – 2025 lays down the framework which would guide the policies relating to the hydrocarbons sector for the next 25 years. It tackles issues like energy security, the use of alternative fuels, and the interchangeability of technology.
25Synonyms  – Devolve Ans. Transfer, Transmit
26Synonyms – Placid Ans. Tranquil, Calm
27Synonyms – Placate Ans. Pacify, Calm
28Synonyms – Temporal Ans. Secular/ Time-related
29Antonym – Archaic Ans. Modern, New
30Idiom – To hit the hay Ans. To go to bed
31Idiom – To kick the bucket Ans. To die
32Idiom – Pull one’s punches Ans. to restrain the force of one’s criticisms or actions
33One Word substitution – A person’s habit or behaviour that is not able to be changed or reformed Ans. Incorrigible
34Spotting Error – There was little improvement (a)/ in his health (b)/ since he shifted to ICU. (c)/ No error (d) Ans. (a) There was a little improvement in his health since he shifted to ICU.
35Spotting Error – Bats are sometime (a)/ seen flying (b)/ in the locality. (c)/ No error (d) Ans. (a) Bats are sometimes seen flying in the locality.
32Rabbit : hop :: duck : ?? Ans. swim/ waddle
33Xylem : Water:: Phloem: ? Ans. Sugar Plants have two transport systems – xylem and phloem . Xylem transports water and minerals. Phloem transports sugars and amino acids dissolved in water.

Questions and Answers for AFCAT 2 2022 – Shift 2 on 27th August – UPDATED

Q. NCC Motto.

Ans- Unity and Discipline

Q) What is the motto of ITBP?

Ans. Shaurya, dridata, karm nishtha (Valour, determination, devotion to duty)

Q) What is the unit used to measure thickness of ozone layer?

Ans. Dobson unit

A Dobson unit is the most basic measure used in ozone research. One Dobson Unit (DU) is defined to be 0.01 mm thickness at STP (standard temperature and pressure).

Q) What are the CEPA Countries?

Ans. India, UAE and USA

Q) Who was hanged in the Gorakhpur Jail?

Ans. Ramprasad Bismil

On 19th December 1927, Ram Prasad Bismil, freedom fighter, was hanged at Gorakhpur Jail, for his role in the Kakori conspiracy.

Q) Anju Bobby George is related to which sport?

Ans. Long Jump

Anju Bobby George made history when she won the bronze medal in Long Jump at the 2003 World Championships in Athletics in Paris. With this achievement, she became the first Indian athlete ever to win a medal in a World Championships in Athletics jumping 6.70 m.

Q) The term “Putt” is related to which sport?

Ans. Golf

Q) Which one is not a Maharatna company?

a) Indian oil corporation

b) Steel Authority of India Limited

c) Bharat Heavy Electricals Limited

d) Finance Corporation of India

Ans. Finance Corporation of India

Q) Gaganyaan mission was collaborated between India and which country?

Ans. France

Space agencies of India and France signed an agreement for cooperation for the former’s first human space mission, Gaganyaan, a move that will enable Indian flight physicians to train at French facilities.

Q) Which Aircraft Carrier is known as Grand Old Lady?

Ans. INS Virat

Q) What is the name of the Anti satellite mission of ISRO in 2019?

Ans. Mission Shakti

Q) Which country has launched green army for environment conservation?

Ans. Australia

The Green Army Program was a hands-on, practical environmental action program that supported local environment and heritage conservation projects across Australia.

Q) Optical fibre is based on what?

Ans. total internal reflection

An optical fibre is a device based on total internal reflection by which a light signal can be transferred from one place to the other with a negligible loss of energy.

Q) Match the following –

Drafting committee – Ambedkar

Steering committee – Rajendra prasad

States committee – Nehru ji

Minority committee – Sardar Patel

Q) Where is the first thermal power plant of India located?

Ans. Andhra Pradesh

Hussain Sagar Thermal Power Station was a historic thermal power plant that was located in Hyderabad, Telangana on the banks of Hussain Sagar. It was India’s first thermal power station, opened in 1920 by the erstwhile seventh Nizam of Hyderabad.

Q) ASTRA MISSILE is a type of?

Ans. Air to Air missile

Q) Match the following –

Pinaka -rocket launcher

Nishant- UAV

Trishul-surface to air missile

Prithvi-surface to surface missile

Q) When did Bal Gangadhar Tilak got lokmanya title?

Ans. Home Rule Movement 1916

Q) One word substitution – Highest women authority of a convent

Ans. Abbess

Q) Spotting error –

All India radio broadcasted a very good programme this morning.

Ans. broadcast instead of broadcasted

Q) Antonym of Cardinal

Ans. Unimportant, insignificant

Q) Synonym of Cajole

Ans. Persuade, Convince

Q) Synonym of Trivial

Ans. Unimportant, Insignificant

Q) Synonym of Delinquent

Ans. Offender, Negligent

Q) Idiom – Carry the can

Ans. take responsibility for a mistake or misdeed.

Q) Bat: Handle:: Sword:?

Ans. Hilt

Q) Paw is to Cat as hoof is to?

Ans. Horse

1What is the motto of NCC? Ans. Unity and Discipline
2What is the motto of ITBP? Ans. Shaurya, dridata, karm nishtha (Valour, determination, devotion to duty)
3What is the unit used to measure thickness of ozone layer? Ans. Dobson unit A Dobson unit is the most basic measure used in ozone research. One Dobson Unit (DU) is defined to be 0.01 mm thickness at STP (standard temperature and pressure).
4What are the CEPA Countries? Ans. India, UAE and USA
5Who was hanged in the Gorakhpur Jail? Ans. Ramprasad Bismil On 19th December 1927, Ram Prasad Bismil, freedom fighter, was hanged at Gorakhpur Jail, for his role in the Kakori conspiracy.
6Anju Bobby George is related to which sport? Ans. Long Jump Anju Bobby George made history when she won the bronze medal in Long Jump at the 2003 World Championships in Athletics in Paris. With this achievement, she became the first Indian athlete ever to win a medal in a World Championships in Athletics jumping 6.70 m.
7The term “Putt” is related to which sport? Ans. Golf
8Which one is not a Maharatna company? a) Indian oil corporation b) Steel Authority of India Limited c) Bharat Heavy Electricals Limited d) Finance Corporation of India Ans. Finance Corporation of India
9Karagam dance belongs to which state? Ans. Tamil Nadu
10Gaganyaan mission was collaborated between India and which country? Ans. France Space agencies of India and France signed an agreement for cooperation for the former’s first human space mission, Gaganyaan, a move that will enable Indian flight physicians to train at French facilities.
11Which Aircraft Carrier is known as Grand Old Lady? Ans. INS Virat
12What is the name of the Anti satellite mission of ISRO in 2019? Ans. Mission Shakti
13Which country has launched green army for environment conservation? Ans. Australia The Green Army Program was a hands-on, practical environmental action program that supported local environment and heritage conservation projects across Australia.
14Optical fibre is based on what? Ans. total internal reflection An optical fibre is a device based on total internal reflection by which a light signal can be transferred from one place to the other with a negligible loss of energy.
15Match the following – Drafting committee – Ambedkar Steering committee – Rajendra prasad States committee – Nehru ji Minority committee – Sardar Patel
16Where is the first thermal power plant of India located? Ans. Andhra Pradesh Hussain Sagar Thermal Power Station was a historic thermal power plant that was located in Hyderabad, Telangana on the banks of Hussain Sagar. It was India’s first thermal power station, opened in 1920 by the erstwhile seventh Nizam of Hyderabad.
17ASTRA MISSILE is a type of? Ans. Air to Air missile
18Match the following – Pinaka -rocket launcher Nishant- UAV Trishul-surface to air missile Prithvi-surface to surface missile
19When did Bal Gangadhar Tilak got lokmanya title? Ans. Home Rule Movement 1916
20Who is the author of “Sauz e Watan”? Ans. Premchand
21Where is 10 degree channel located? Ans. The Ten Degree Channel is a channel that separates the Andaman Islands and Nicobar Islands from each other in the Bay of Bengal.
22Silicon valley is located in which state of USA? Ans. California
23What is principal organ of UN? 1.WTO 2.IAEA 3.ICJ Ans. ICJ
24One word substitution – Highest women authority of a convent Ans. Abbess
25Spotting error – All India radio broadcasted a very good programme this morning. Ans. broadcast instead of broadcasted
26Spotting error – I know he is having a lot of books on how to improve vocabulary. Ans. He has instead of He is having
27Spotting error – She said that she will help when I was in difficulty. Ans. She would help instead of She will help
28Antonym of Cardinal Ans. Unimportant, insignificant
29Synonym of Cajole Ans. Persuade, Convince
30Synonym of Trivial Ans. Unimportant, Insignificant
31Synonym of Delinquent Ans. Offender, Negligent
32Idiom – Carry the can Ans. take responsibility for a mistake or misdeed.
33Idiom – Turn up one’s nose Ans. show distaste or contempt for.
34Bat: Handle:: Sword:? Ans. Hilt
35Paw is to Cat as hoof is to? Ans. Horse Rhinoceroses, horses, giraffes, deer, cows, goats, ox, buffaloes and antelopes are all examples of hoofed mammals.
36Architect: Building::Sculptor: ? Ans. Statue
37Odd one out – Turmeric, Cumin, Cardamom, Cloves Ans. Turmeric

AFCAT 2 2022 Question Paper [Download PDF]

If you are preparing for the AFCAT 1 2023 and AFCAT 2 2023 written exam and SSB interview, you can check SSBCrackExams online courses and mock tests.

AFCAT 2023 Live Classes 1

New Cut-Off, Marking & Normalisation Scheme For AFCAT 2 2022 Exam

1. The marking scheme is as follows:-
(a) Three marks will be awarded for every correct answer.
(b) One mark will be deducted for every incorrect answer.
(c) No marks for unattempted questions.

2. In order to rationalise the marks scored by candidates appearing in different shifts in an objective manner through a statistical method, Normalisation Scheme is being implemented as per the following formula:-

afcat 2 2022 cut off marks normalisation

3. The same normalisation formula is used by the Ministry of Personal, Public Grievance & Pensions as well as Staff Selection Commission and Railway Recruitment Board.

AFCAT 2023 Live Classes 2 2

Exam Schedule And Date For AFCAT 2 2022 Exam

The AFCAT (and EKT) will be conducted in three days as per the following schedule:

image
AFCAT 2023 Live Classes 3 1

Selection Procedure For AFCAT 2 2022 Exam

  • The AFCAT online examination will be given by the Indian Air Force at several test sites throughout the nation. The AFCAT 2 2022 online exam will be held on August 26, 27 and 28.
  • The IAF will release the AFCAT 2 2022 results in March 2022, and candidates can view their scores, qualifying scores, and other information on the official website, afcat.cdac.in.
  • The same platform is used by selected candidates to select the location and date of their AFSB interview.
  • The screening test, which consists of verbal, nonverbal, and a PPDT test, is the initial phase of the interview. The chosen candidates will remain at the centres for additional testing, and those who failed it will be released that same day.
  • The next phase entails a personal interview, psychological and GTO tests, a PABT (for only flying), and a conference on the penultimate day, following which the final outcome is declared. The chosen candidates are given a medical exam.
AFCAT 2023 Live Classes 1 1

New Syllabus For AFCAT 2 2022

(aa) English. Comprehension, Detect Error in Sentence, Sentence Completion/ Filling in of correct word, Synonym/ Antonym, Cloze Test or Fill in the Gaps in a paragraph, Idioms and Phrases, Analogy, Sentence Rearranging, Substitution in a Sentence/ One Word Substitution.

(ab) General Awareness. History, Geography, Sports, National & International Organisations, Art & Culture, Personalities, Environment & Ecology, Indian Polity, Economy, Basic Science Based Knowledge, Science & Technology, Current Affairs (National & International), Defence.

(ac) Numerical Ability. Decimal Fraction, Time and Work, Average/ Percentage, Profit & Loss, Ratio & Proportion, Simple and Compound Interest, Time & Distance and Races (Trains/ Boats & Streams), Area and Perimeter, Probability, Number System & Number Series, Mixture & Allegation Rules, Clocks.

(ad) Reasoning and Military Aptitude Test. Verbal and Non-Verbal Reasoning

Standard Of Questions. The standard of Numerical Ability Questions will be of Matriculation level. The standard of questions in other subjects will be of graduation level (Indian University).

AFCAT 2023 Live Classes 2 2

Exam Pattern, Marking Scheme For AFCAT 2 2022 Exam

Exam NameAFCAT – Air Force Common Admission TestEKT Engineering Knowledge Test
Exam ModeComputer-Based (Online)Computer-Based (Online)
Total Questions10050
Maximum Marks300150
Exam Duration2 hours (120 minutes)45 minutes
SubjectsGeneral Awareness, Verbal Ability in English, Numerical Ability and Reasoning and Military Aptitude TestMechanical, Computer Science and Electrical & Electronics
Negative Marking1 mark1 mark

The AFCAT 2023 Exam is a Must If You Want to Join the Indian Air Force.

Also Read:

AFCAT 2 2022 Expected Cut Off Marks [Check Here]

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The Indian Air Force is going to conduct the AFCAT 2 2022 online test on 26, 27, and 28, August 2022. Big update regarding the AFCAT 2 2022 Exam New Cut-Off, Marking, and Normalisation Scheme For Both AFCAT & EKT. The following formula is being used to implement the normalisation scheme, which aims to objectively and statistically rationalise the marks earned by candidates who appeared in various shifts. The Ministry of Personal, Public Grievance & Pensions, the Staff Selection Commission, and the Railway Recruitment Board all utilise the same normalisation formula which is mentioned below.

Based on the recent question paper pattern and level of difficulty, SSBCrackExams will release the expected cut-off marks for the AFCAT 2 2022 exam. Candidates for the Air Force can check their AFCAT cut-off scores after the test. On the 26th, 27th, and 28th of August 2022, SSBCrackExams will post the AFCAT 2 2022 question paper and Answer Keys from shift-1 and shift-2 here. The previous year’s AFCAT cut-off scores can be found below.

SSB Interview Live Classes 1

Also Check:

New Cut-Off, Marking & Normalisation Scheme For AFCAT 2 2022 Exam

1. The marking scheme is as follows:-
(a) Three marks will be awarded for every correct answer.
(b) One mark will be deducted for every incorrect answer.
(c) No marks for unattempted questions.

2. In order to rationalise the marks scored by candidates appearing in different shifts in an objective manner through a statistical method, Normalisation Scheme is being implemented as per the following formula:-

afcat 2 2022 cut off marks normalisation

3. The same normalisation formula is used by the Ministry of Personal, Public Grievance & Pensions as well as Staff Selection Commission and Railway Recruitment Board.

AFCAT 2023 Live Classes 2 2

AFCAT 2 2022 Expected Cut-Off Marks

AFCAT 2 2022 Expected Cut offTo Be Updated
EKT 2 2022 Expected Cut offTo Be Updated

AFCAT Official Cut-Off Marks (2014 – 2022)

AFCATAFCAT Cut Off EKT Cut Off 
AFCAT 2 202115718
AFCAT 1 202116530
AFCAT 2 202015540
AFCAT 1 202015340
AFCAT 2 201914250
AFCAT 1 201913350
AFCAT 2 201814055
AFCAT 1 201815560
AFCAT 2 201716060
AFCAT 1 201715060
AFCAT 2 201614860
AFCAT 1 201613252
AFCAT 2 201514452
AFCAT 1 201512655
AFCAT 2 201412345

If you are preparing for the AFCAT 1 2023 and AFCAT 2 2023 written exam and SSB interview, you can check SSBCrackExams online courses and mock tests.

AFCAT 2023 Live Classes 2 2

Exam Schedule And Date For AFCAT 2 2022 Exam

The AFCAT (and EKT) will be conducted in three days as per the following schedule:

image
AFCAT 2023 Live Classes 3 1

Selection Procedure For AFCAT 2 2022 Exam

  • The AFCAT online examination will be given by the Indian Air Force at several test sites throughout the nation. The AFCAT 2 2022 online exam will be held on August 26, 27 and 28.
  • The IAF will release the AFCAT 2 2022 results in March 2022, and candidates can view their scores, qualifying scores, and other information on the official website, afcat.cdac.in.
  • The same platform is used by selected candidates to select the location and date of their AFSB interview.
  • The screening test, which consists of verbal, nonverbal, and a PPDT test, is the initial phase of the interview. The chosen candidates will remain at the centres for additional testing, and those who failed it will be released that same day.
  • The next phase entails a personal interview, psychological and GTO tests, a PABT (for only flying), and a conference on the penultimate day, following which the final outcome is declared. The chosen candidates are given a medical exam.
AFCAT 2023 Live Classes 3 1

New Syllabus For AFCAT 2 2022

(aa) English. Comprehension, Detect Error in Sentence, Sentence Completion/ Filling in of correct word, Synonym/ Antonym, Cloze Test or Fill in the Gaps in a paragraph, Idioms and Phrases, Analogy, Sentence Rearranging, Substitution in a Sentence/ One Word Substitution.

(ab) General Awareness. History, Geography, Sports, National & International Organisations, Art & Culture, Personalities, Environment & Ecology, Indian Polity, Economy, Basic Science Based Knowledge, Science & Technology, Current Affairs (National & International), Defence.

(ac) Numerical Ability. Decimal Fraction, Time and Work, Average/ Percentage, Profit & Loss, Ratio & Proportion, Simple and Compound Interest, Time & Distance and Races (Trains/ Boats & Streams), Area and Perimeter, Probability, Number System & Number Series, Mixture & Allegation Rules, Clocks.

(ad) Reasoning and Military Aptitude Test. Verbal and Non-Verbal Reasoning

Standard Of Questions. The standard of Numerical Ability Questions will be of Matriculation level. The standard of questions in other subjects will be of graduation level (Indian University).

AFCAT 2023 Live Classes 2 2

Exam Pattern, Marking Scheme For AFCAT 2 2022 Exam

Exam NameAFCAT – Air Force Common Admission TestEKT Engineering Knowledge Test
Exam ModeComputer-Based (Online)Computer-Based (Online)
Total Questions10050
Maximum Marks300150
Exam Duration2 hours (120 minutes)45 minutes
SubjectsGeneral Awareness, Verbal Ability in English, Numerical Ability and Reasoning and Military Aptitude TestMechanical, Computer Science and Electrical & Electronics
Negative Marking1 mark1 mark

To crack the AFSB Interview, You can join our SSB interview live classes batch and we recommend you to Enroll SSB INTERVIEW ONLINE COURSE. Trusted by thousands of defence aspirants.

SSB Interview Live Classes 2 1

Join India’s Best AFSB Interview Online Classes [Daily Live Classes]

DAYSCLASSES
1SSB Interview Online Course Introduction
2Introduction Of OIR and Practice Session I
3OIR Practice Session II
4Introduction of PPDT and Practice Session I
5PPDT Practice Session II
6Complete Screening Test Practice (OIR & PPDT)
7Overview Of Psych Test
8Introduction of TAT And Practice Session I
9Introduction of WAT And Practice Session I
10Introduction of SRT And Practice Session I
11Introduction of SDT And Practice Session I
12Complete Psych Test Practice (TAT, WAT, SRT & SDT)
13Introduction of PIQ Form And Guidance
14Introduction of Personal Interview And Discussion
15Individual Personal Interview Sessions
16Introduction of GTO And Tips
17 AIntroduction of GD And Practice Session I
17 BGD Practice Session II
18Introduction of GPE And Practice Session I
19GPE Practice Session II
20Introduction of Lecturette And Practice Session I
21Complete Overview Of SSB Interview Process & Feedback

The AFCAT 2023 Exam is a Must If You Want to Join the Indian Air Force.

Also Read:

Nepal demands India to suspend Agnipath Gorkha recruiting

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Suspend-Agnipath-Gorkha-recruiting

According to media reports, Nepal has urged India to halt the recruitment of Gorkhas into the Indian Army under the recently implemented Agnipath scheme.

According to a report in the My Republica daily, Foreign Minister Narayan Khadke met with India’s ambassador to Nepal, Naveen Srivastava, on Wednesday and asked him to put off the intention to recruit Nepali youths under the new scheme.

The development occurs before Indian Army Chief General Manoj Pande’s anticipated five-day official visit to Nepal, which is scheduled to begin on September 4. During that time, he will have in-depth discussions with the senior civil and military authorities in Nepal.

General Pande is in Nepal primarily to accept President Bidya Devi Bhandari’s honorific title of Honorary General of the Nepal Army. It has long been customary for the army leaders of India and Nepal to visit each other and be given the honorary rank of general.

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In the discussion, Minister Khadka stated that it is important to get the views of all parties, including the major political parties and stakeholders. “The government has not made a final decision on this. After a more thorough knowledge has been developed, we will return to India, a ministry source told Indian Express.

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Since the 1947 Tripartite Agreement between Nepal, India, and the UK included a clause allowing for the recruitment of Nepalese youths into the British and Indian Armies, Nepalese youths have long been recruited into the Indian Army.

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7000+ Current Affairs Questions For NDA 2023 – Current Affairs Notes

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Current Affairs Questions For NDA 2023 – Current Affairs Notes: UPSC is going to conduct the NDA 2023 examination in 2023 and lakhs of defence aspirants will be facing the NDA 1 2023 examination to join the prestigious National Defence Academy and Naval Academy after 12th.

NDA 2023 will consist of 2 main questions papers which are mathematics and General Ability which also comprise of English.  As many aspirants are asking us regarding the NDA 2023 current affairs questions and current affairs notes, we are linking few good study material for the preparation for NDA 2023  current affairs. Candidates can face current affairs questions from January – Dec 2023. We suggest all the aspirants to cover minimum7-8 months of current affairs.

In NDA 1 2023, aspirants will face current affairs and GK question in paper 2 general ability test. Below are few questions which will help you to prepare for the NDA 2 2023 current affairs. You can read these NDA current affairs notes every day to perform better in current affairs sections.

PAPER I- MATHEMATICS
Total Marks300 Marks
Total No. of Questions120
Marks awarded for Correct answer2.5 marks
Marks deducted for wrong answer-0.85
Exam Duration2.5 Hours
PAPER II- GENERAL ABILITY
Total Marks600 marks
Total No. of Questions150
No. of questions in English Section50
No. Of questions in General knowledge Section100
Maximum Marks for English200 marks
Maximum Marks for G.K.400 marks
Marks for Correct Answer4 marks in both sections
Marks for Incorrect Answer-1.33 marks in both sections
Exam Duration2.5 Hours
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The NDA Current Affairs monthly Notes consists of:

  • Day wise major events.
  • Monthly current affairs questions.
  • Static GK
  • Important news
  • Mostly asked questions

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  1. What is the rank of India in the JLL’s Global Real Estate Transparency Index 2018?

(A) 35

(B) 42

(C) 39

(D) 28

Answer: (A) 35- India has moved up a place to 35th spot in JLL’s Global Real Estate Transparency Index 2018, registering maximum improvement in transparency over the last two years. Policy reforms, liberalisation of FDI into realty and retail, strengthening of public information and assigning industry status to affordable housing helped India surge ahead in the rankings. According to the survey, UK is at the top position followed by Australia and the US.Venezuela is the least transparent market with 100th rank.

  1. Who among the given has won the women’s 100 m event at the 58th National Inter State Senior Athletics Championship, Guwahati?

(A) Shiny Abraham

(B) Manjeet Kaur

(C) Tintu Lukka

(D) Dutee Chand

Answer: (D) Dutee Chand – Indian sprinter Dutee Chand has set a new national record in the women’s 100-metre race at the 58th National Inter State Senior Athletics Championships held at Sarusajai Stadium, Guwahati. She clocked 11.29 seconds to beat her own previous record of 11.30 seconds which she achieved at the Indian Grand Prix in 2017.Dutee has qualified for the Asian Games in 100m and 200m by breaching the qualifying timings at the Inter State Championships.

  1. The Indian Navy recently participated in Passage Exercise (PASSEX) with which of the following countries?

(A) Thailand

(B) Bangladesh

(C) Indonesia

(D) Singapore

Answer: (C) Indonesia- The Navies of India and Indonesia participated in Passage Exercise (PASSEX), to enhance their maritime cooperation. Indian Naval ships INS Shakti and INS Kamorta under the command of Rear Admiral Dinesh K Tripathi, Flag Officer Commanding Eastern Fleet, undertook Passage Exercise (PASSEX) with Indonesian Naval Ship KRI Madidihang (855) a Stingrays Class Fast Patrol Craft on leaving the Port of Makassar, Indonesia.

  1. The Government of India will observe July 1 as GST Day which marks___________its anniversary.

(A) Second

(B) First

(C) Third

  1. D) Fourth

Answer: (B) First – The Government of India will celebrate July 1, 2018, as ‘GST Day’ to mark the first anniversary of the new indirect tax regime. Goods and Services Tax (GST) was rolled out in the intervening night of June 30 and July 1 in 2017.

  1. With which country, BHEL has signed Technology Collaboration Agreement (TCA) for design and manufacture of emission controlling devices for coal-based power plants?

(A) Russia

(B) France

(C) South Korea

(D) Israel

Answer: (C) South Korea- Bharat Heavy Electricals Limited (BHEL) has signed Technology Collaboration Agreement (TCA) with South Korean firm NANO Co Ltd. for design and manufacture of emission controlling devices for coal-based thermal power plants to comply with emission norms. Under the agreement, NANO will design and manufacture the solution known as SCR Catalysts for De-NOx application in coal-fired plants to enhance BHEL’s offerings for emission control systems (De-NOx applications).

  1. Which among the following sites of Mumbai has recently been inducted into the UNESCO World Heritage Site list?

(A) Victorian Gothic and Art Deco Ensembles of Mumbai

(B) The Imperial Tower

(C) 1905 Prince’s TriumphalArch Clock Tower, Mumbai

(D) Global Vipassana Pagoda

Answer: (A) Victorian Gothic and Art Deco Ensembles of Mumbai- Mumbai’s Victorian and Art Deco Ensembles has been inscribed as a UNESCO World Heritage Site during 42nd session of the World Heritage Committee of UNESCO at Manama in Bahrain. The Ensemble comprises of two architectural styles, the 19th century collection of Victorian structures and the 20th century Art Deco buildings along the sea, conjoined by means of the historical open space of the Oval Maidan.Collectively it will be known as the Victorian Gothic and Art Deco Ensembles of Mumbai.This makes Mumbai city the second city in India after Ahmedabad to be inscribed on the World Heritage List.India now has overall 37 World Heritage Inscriptions with 29 Cultural, 07 Natural and 01 Mixed sites.

  1. How many new awards and medals have been announced by the Home Ministry for the police department of India?

(A) 2

(B) 3

(C) 4

(D) 5

Answer: (C) 4- The Union Home Minister Shri Rajnath Singh has approved the institution of “Home Minister’s Special Operation Medal”for Police Officers of States & Union Territories, Central Police Organisations (CPOs), Central Armed Police Forces (CAPFs) and Security Organisation involved in Special Operations. The Union Home Minister has also instituted three more Medals namely the Antarik Suraksha Medal, Asadharan Aashuchan Padak, and Utkrisht & Ati-Utkrisht Seva Medal.

  1. Who among the given has been named as the Captain of India’s 18-member squad for the women’s hockey World Cup 2018?

(A) Rajani Etimarpu

(B) Rani Rampal

(C) Navjot Kaur

(D) Nikki Pradhan

Answer: (B) Rani Rampal- Rani Rampal has been named as the Captain of India’s 18-member squad for the women’s hockey World Cup while goalkeeper Savita will serve as her deputy in the World Cup to be played in London from July 21 to August 5, 2018. India have been placed in Pool B alongside hosts and world no. 2 England, world no. 7 USA and world no. 16 Ireland.

  1. CRPF has constituted a team of lady commandos known as________________ to deal with the women stone pelters across Jammu & Kashmir border.

(A) Super 50

(B) Super 100

(C) Super 200

(D) Super 500

Answer: (D) Super 500- The Central Reserve Police Force (CRPF) has prepared a team of lady commandos to deal with the rising number of women participants involved in the incident of stone pelting across Jammu & Kashmir region to target security forces. Dubbed as ‘Super 500′, the team of lady commandos have been given rigorous training which includes being blindfolded to deal with night-time deployment and repairing weapons in under a minute in case of any malfunction.

  1. Which among the following entity has signed an SoI with Gujarat Narmada Valley Fertilizers & Chemicals Limited (GNFC) to implement Fertilizer Subsidy Disbursement through Blockchain Technology?

(A) NITI Aayog

(B) Ministry of Finance

(C) NABARD

(D) Indian Council of Agricultural Research (ICAR)

Answer: (A) NITI Aayog- NITI Aayog and Gujarat Narmada Valley Fertilizers & Chemicals Limited (GNFC) have signed a Statement of Intent (SOI) today to work together towards implementing a Proof-of-Concept (“PoC”) application using Blockchain Technology for fertiliser subsidy management to make it more transparent and immune to leakages. They will jointly develop the use case, under take research, interact with multiple stakeholders, develop Blockchain solutions, exchange learnings, organise forums, and disseminate learnings across their networks.

  1. According to the recently released first Delta Ranking of Aspirational Districts by NITI Aayog, which among the following districts has achieved the top spot?

(A) Asifabad district, Telangana

(B) Dahod district, Gujarat

(C) West Sikkim district, Sikkim

(D) Bijapur district, Chhattisgarh

Answer: (B) Dahod district, Gujarat- The NITI Aayog recently launched the first Delta ranking (incremental progress) for the Aspirational Districts, based on self-reported data of districts between March 31, 2018 to May 31, 2018. These ranking is based on five developmental areas of Health and Nutrition, Education, Agriculture and Water Resources, Financial Inclusion and Skill Development, and Basic Infrastructure. Dahod district in Gujarat has been ranked first among 108 ‘aspirational districts’ by the NITI Aayog on the basis of incremental development over two months. West Sikkim district stood second.The NITI Aayog has ranked 108 districts out of 112 Aspirational Districts.

  1. Name the Airport which has topped the global ranking list of 2018 OAG Punctual League released by British aviation intelligence firm OAG.

(A) Sharjah Airport, UAE

(B) Guangzhou Baiyun Airport, China

(C) Nagoya Komaki Airport, Japan

(D) Chicago O’Hare, US

Answer: (C) Nagoya Komaki Airport, Japan- Based upon a report by British aviation intelligence firm OAG, Mumbai’s Chhatrapati Shivaji International Airport has been ranked as the fifth least punctual airport in the world with a rank of 509 out of the 513 airports globally. These are among the findings in a report of 513 airports and 65 airlines across the world. The Nagoya Komaki Airport in Japan topped the global ranking list with an ‘on-time performance’ (OTP) rate of 94.5 percent. None of the major Indian airports figured among the top 200 in ‘on-time performance’ (OTP), but the small Port Blair airport in the Andaman and Nicobar Islands got the worldwide rank of 65, thanks to its punctuality rate of 84.6 percent.

  1. The foundation stone for Gattu irrigation project has been laid down in which state recently?

(A) Gujarat

(B) Madhya Pradesh

(C) Rajasthan

(D) Telangana

Answer: (D) Telangana- Telangana Chief Minister K Chandrasekhar Rao had laid foundation stone for Gattu irrigation project in Jogulamba Gadwal district. The project will provide water to 33,000 acres in four mandals in the district. The estimated cost of the project is Rs Rs 553.98 crore.

  1. Which bank has been authorized by the government to issue and encash the fourth tranche of the sale of Electoral Bonds?

(A) IDBI Bank

(B) Reserve Bank of India

(C) State Bank of India

(D) HDFC Bank

Answer: (C) State Bank of India- The Government of India had notified the Electoral Bond Scheme 2018 on January 2, 2018. The Finance Ministry has announced that the fourth tranche of electoral bonds sale will take place from July 2-11. State Bank of India (SBI), in the 4th phase of sale, has been authorised to issue and encash Electoral Bonds through its 11 Authorised Branches. The sale of first batch of electoral bonds took place between March 1 and March 10, 2018. The second phase was launched on April 2 till April 10. The third phase took place during May 1-10.

  1. The 9th meeting of Eminent Persons Group (EPG) on India-Nepal relations was held in which city?

(A) Kathmandu

(B) New Delhi

(C) Mumbai

(D) Pokhara

Answer: (A) Kathmandu- The ninth and final meeting of Eminent Persons Group (EPG) on India-Nepal relations concluded in Kathmandu on June 20 to discuss various bilateral issues including 1950 Peace and Friendship treaty, trade, transit and border during the two day meeting.

  1. Name the Managing Director of State Bank of India who recently stepped down form the post.

(A) Rajnish Kumar

(B) B Sriram

(C) Ashok Kumar Pradhan

(D) Sanjeev Sharma

Answer: (B) B Sriram- State Bank of India (SBI) managing director B Sriram has resigned from the country’s largest lender after his appointment as chief executive of IDBI Bank. The government recently appointed Sriram as managing director and CEO of IDBI Bank for a temporary period of three months following M K Jain demitting office to take over as Deputy Governor of RBI.

  1. The Virutal ID system of UIDAI rolled out from July 1 is a _____ digit number mapped with Aadhaar number.

(A) 16

(B) 12

(C) 9

(D) 15

Answer: (A) 16- The Aadhaar issuing authority Unique Identification Authority of India (UIDAI) has operationalized its Virtual ID system from 1 July. The Virtual ID is a 16-digit random number mapped with Aadhaar number. It can only be generated, replaced or revoked by the Aadhaar number holder. It has been introduced so that the actual 12-digit Aadhaar number need not be shared for authenticating identity. Banks have been given time till 31 August to migrate to the new system which supports authentication using Virtual IDs and UID tokens.

  1. Girish Chandra Chaturvedi has been appointed as the non-executive chairman of which bank?

(A) Yes Bank

(B) HDFC

(C) ICICI

(D) Axis Bank

Answer: (C) ICICI- ICICI Bank has appointed former petroleum secretary Girish Chandra Chaturvedi as the company’s non-executive chairman. The term of office of incumbent M K Sharma expires on June 30, 2018.

  1. As per President Ram Nath Kovind, Indian Economy to touch how much by 2025?

(A) $5 trillion

(B) $10 trillion

(C) $15 trillion

(D) $20 trillion

Answer: (A) $5 trillion-

President Ram Nath Kovind said the Indian economy is set for a surge in the next decade with the GDP size doubling to 5 trillion US dollars by 2025.

  1. The Central Reserve Police Force launched which helpline also known as distress helpline for the people of Jammu and Kashmir?

(A) Rahagir

(B) Samabhavna

(C) Unnati

(D) Madadgaar

Answer: (D) Madadgaar- The Central Reserve Police Force launched “Madadgar Helpline”a distress helpline for the people of J&K, with the aim of providing immediate assistance to locals.

  1. Vice President Venkaiah Naidu released a commeromative coin of Rs.125 denomination to celebrate the birth anniversary of which Indian scientist?

(A) Prasad Chandra

(B) Vikram Sarabhai

(C) Prasanta Chandra Mahalonabis

(D) CV Raman

Answer: (C) Prasanta Chandra Mahalonabis- Vice President M Venkaiah Naidu released a commemorative of Rs.125 denomination to celebrate the birth anniversary of Scientist Prasanta Chandra Mahalonabis on 12th Statistics Day.

  1. The Central Board of Direct Taxes extended the PAN-Aadhar linking deadline upto which date?

(A) April 31,2019

(B) March 31,2019

(C) December 31,2018

(D) December 31,2019

Answer: (B) March 31,2019-

  1. UIDAI has made Virtual ID operational from July , 2018.Virtual ID consists of how many digits?

(A) 14

(B) 15

(C) 10

(D) 16

Answer: (D) 16- UIDAI has made virtual ID operational from July 1,2018 with its Authentication User Agencies (AUAs) which have migrated to VID and UID Token.It is a 16-digit random number mapped with Aadhar number.

  1. Odisha Government signed a MoU with RIMES for effective management of disasters.What does “ I” stands for in RIMES?

(A) Immigration

(B) Integrated

(C) Inclusive

(D) Integration

Answer: (B) Integrated- Odisha Government signed a Memorandum of Understanding (MoU) with the Regional Integrated Multi Hazard Early Warning System(RIMES) for effective management of disasters.

  1. Which state will be setting up the “first Khadi Mall” of the country?

(A) Jharkhand

(B) Uttar Pradesh

(C) Telangana

(D) Odisha

Answer: (A) Jharkhand- Jharkhand CM Raghubar Das announced that the first “Khadi Mall” of the country will be opened in Ranchi.

Download 7000+ Current Affairs Questions For NDA 2023

AFCAT 2 2022 Answer Keys All Sets From 26, 27, 28 August [PDF]

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The Indian Air Force is holding the AFCAT 2 2022 online test all around the nation. Defence candidates who desire to join the Indian Air Force will take the AFCAT test online in two shifts on August 26, 27, and 28 of 2022. Candidates should begin showing up at the exam centre at 7:30 AM for the first shift and 12:30 PM for the second shift, according to the information on the admit card. The answer keys for all of the AFCAT 2 2022 sets based on the memory question-and-answer session are provided in this post.

In this article, we’ll share the answer keys for all of the AFCAT 2 2022 sets based on the question-and-answer discussion shared by SSBCrackexams students and followers that are memory-based.

They must show up at the exact time given so that they can go through the entry procedures (including being patted down) and verification process (biometrics, identification, and checking of admit card, ID proof, photo, signature, etc.) before going into the exam room. The candidates are asked to find the exam center the day before so that they can get there on time the day of the test. No requests to change the place or date of the exam will be taken into account.

AFCAT 2 2022 Answer Keys 26 August 2022 – Shift 1 [Fully Solved] – 12:00 PM [MUST WATCH]

AFCAT 2 2022 Answer Keys 26 August 2022 – Shift 2 [Fully Solved] – 12:00 PM [MUST WATCH]

AFCAT 2 2022 Answer Keys (Fully Solved) – To Be Updated

26th, 27, and 28th August AFCAT 2 2022 Answer Keys [All Sets]Download Link
AFCAT 2 2022 26 August Answer Key Fully Solved Shift – 1 by SSBCrackExamsTo Be Updated
AFCAT 2 2022 26 August Answer Key Fully Solved Shift – 2 by SSBCrackExamsTo Be Updated
AFCAT 2 2022 27 August Answer Key Fully Solved Shift – 1 by SSBCrackExamsTo Be Updated
AFCAT 2 2022 27 August Answer Key Fully Solved Shift – 2 by SSBCrackExamsTo Be Updated
AFCAT 2 2022 28 August Answer Key Fully Solved Shift – 1 by SSBCrackExamsTo Be Updated
AFCAT 2 2022 28 August Answer Key Fully Solved Shift – 2 by SSBCrackExamsTo Be Updated

**NOTE MEMORY-BASED QUESTIONS SHARED BY SSBCRACKEXAMS STUDENTS & FOLLOWERS

Shifts 1 and 2 of the AFCAT 2 2022 Answer Keys And Solutions will be updated on 26th August 2022.

Soon after the test concludes, SSBCrackExams will update the memory-based shift-2 questions for the AFCAT 2 2022 26th August Answer Keys And Solutions. The AFCAT 2 2022 questions and answer keys are also available to view on our SSBCrackExams App and YouTube page.

Answer Keys And Solutions For AFCAT 2 2022 – Shift 1 On 26th August – To Be Updated

Q) ICJ headquarters?
Ans. The Hague: The seat of the Court is at the Peace Palace in The Hague (Netherlands). Of the six principal organs of the United Nations, it is the only one not located in New York (United States of America).

Q) how many hymns are in rig Veda?
Ans. 1028 hymns: The Rig Veda consists of 1028 hymns, organised into ten books known as maṇḍalas.

Q) What is the Motto of the territorial army?
Ans. Savdhani Va Shoorta (Vigilance and Valour)

Q) Which fighter aircraft is able to carry the Brahmos missiles?
Ans. IAF Sukhoi 30 MK-I: Recently Air Version Of BrahMos Supersonic Cruise Missile Was Successfully Test Fired From The Supersonic Fighter Aircraft Sukhoi 30 MK-I

Q) Which river flows from Washington DC?
Ans. The Potomac River

Match the following joint military exercises –
Varuna – France
Indra – Russia
Maitree – Thailand
Garud Shakti – Indonesia

Q) Olympic logo from left to right
Ans. Blue, Yellow, Back, Green, Red

Q) Fact Check Module aims to check what?
Ans. Accuracy

Q) The largest ecosystem of the world
Ans- The World Ocean is the largest existing ecosystem on our planet. Covering over 71% of the Earth’s surface, it’s a source of livelihood for over 3 billion people.


Q) Andher nagari chaupat raja
Ans. Writer is भारतेन्दु हरिश्चंद्र

Q) NASA+ESA + Italian space agency probe to Saturn?
Ans. CASSINI: A joint endeavor of NASA, the European Space Agency, or ESA, and the Italian Space Agency, Cassini

Q) 86th Amendment Act came in-
Ans. 12th December 2002

Q) Instrument used to measure Humidity?
Ans. Hygrometer

Match the instruments with the artists –
Ustad Bismillah Khan – Shehnai
Ustad Vilayat Khan – Sitar
Amjad Ali Khan – Sarod
V G Jog – Violin


Q) Gandhiji presided over which Congress session?
Ans. 1924 Belgaum Session


Q) What is the working principle of the hydrogen bomb?
Ans. Nuclear fusion

Q) Where is the headquarter of United News Agency?
Ans. New Delhi

Match the following
52 Amendment Act- Anti Defection
73rd – Panchayati Rajya
61A amendment Act- 21Year – 18 Year Age Vote
86th Amendment Act- RTE

Q. How many earthquake zones there are in India?
Ans- As per the seismic zoning map of the country, the total area is classified into four seismic zones. Based on historical seismic activity, the Bureau of Indian Standards has categorized regions in India into four seismic zones: zones II, III, IV and V. Of these, the most seismically active area is Zone V and the least active is Zone II.

Q) Which district has received Prime Minister’s Award for Excellence in 2021?
Ans. Datia, Madhya Pradesh

Q) Injury : helmet:: flood:?
Ans. Levee

Q) Architect : building :: curator:?
Ans. Museum

Q) Odd one out – Singing, Playing, Writing, Breathing
Ans. Breathing (as it is an involuntary activity)

Q) Odd one out – March, November, August, July
Ans. November (only it has 30 days – rest have 31 days)

Q) Take time by the forelock
Ans. To seize an opportunity

Synonym of PRECARIOUS
Ans. Uncertain, Insecure, Risky


Synonym of PROPONENT
Ans. Advocate, Supporter, Promoter


Antonym of INTRINSIC
Ans. Extrinsic, Acquired


Antonym of COLOSSAL
Ans. Tiny, Small, Insignificant


Idiom – Haul over the coals
Ans. To criticize sharply

Q) Take time by the forelock
Ans. To seize an opportunity

One word substitution –
A divine force that some people believe controls our lives and in a way protects us
(a) Universal (b) Spiritual (c) Providence (d) Metaphysics
Ans. Providence

Fill in the blanks –
You must __________ to the rules.
Ans. adhere

Fill in the blanks –
An honest person lives by _______________.
Ans. the sweat of one’s brows

Fill in the blanks –
A light breeze _________ the forest fire and made it more dangerous.
Ans. fend

1Where is the Headquarter of ICG? Ans. The Hague, Netherlands The seat of the Court is at the Peace Palace in The Hague (Netherlands). Of the six principal organs of the United Nations, it is the only one not located in New York (United States of America).
2How many hymns are there in Rigveda? Ans. 1028 The Rig Veda consists of 1028 hymns, organised into ten books known as maṇḍalas.
3What is the motto of the Territorial Army? Ans. Savdhani Va Shoorta (Vigilance and Valour)
4Which river flows from Washington DC? Ans. The Potomac River
5Which ​fighter aircraft has the ability to carry Brahmos? Ans. Su-30MKI aircraft
6Fact Check Module aims to check what? Ans. Accuracy
7Match the following joint military exercises – Varuna –  France Indra – Russia Maitree – Thailand Garud Shakti – Indonesia
8Arrange the rings of Olympic logos (left to right direction) – Ans. Blue, Yellow, Black, Green, Red
9What is the largest ecosystem of the earth? Ans. The World Ocean Covering over 71% of the Earth’s surface, it’s a source of livelihood for over 3 billion people.
10What is the light house of the Mediterranean? Ans. Stromboli Volcano
11Who is the author of the play “Andher Nagri Chaupat Raja”? Ans. Bhartendu Harishchandra
12Which instrument is used to measure humidity? Ans. Hygrometer
13What is the name of probe sent to Saturn by NASA, ESA & Italian space agency? Ans. CASSINI
14Match the instruments with the artists – Ustad Bismillah Khan – Shehnai Ustad Vilayat Khan – Sitar Amjad Ali Khan – Sarod V G Jog – Violin
15Gandhiji presided over which Congress session? Ans. 1924 Belgaum Session
16What is the working principle of hydrogen bomb? Ans. Nuclear fusion
17Where is the headquarter of United News Agency? Ans. New Delhi
18Match the following – 52nd Amendment Act – Anti Defection Law 73rd Amendment Act – Panchayati Raj 61st Amendment Act – Voting Age reduced to 18 from 21 years 86th Amendment Act – Right to Education
19Which category aircraft is Tejas? Ans. Light Combat Aircraft
20How many earthquake zones there are in India? Ans. As per the seismic zoning map of the country, the total area is classified into four seismic zones. Based on historical seismic activity, the Bureau of Indian Standards has categorized regions in India into four seismic zones: zones II, III, IV and V. Of these, the most seismically active area is Zone V and the least active is Zone II.
21Which district has received Prime Minister’s Award for Excellence in 2021? Ans. Datia, Madhya Pradesh
22Nusantara is the new capital of which country? Ans. Indonesia It is the future capital of Indonesia set to be inaugurated in August 2024. It will replace Jakarta, the national capital since 1945.
23What is the Motto of the Indian Army? Ans. Service Before Self
24Synonym of PRECARIOUS Ans. Uncertain, Insecure, Risky
25Synonym of PROPONENT Ans. Advocate, Supporter, Promoter
26Antonym of INTRINSIC Ans. Extrinsic, Acquired
27Antonym of COLOSSAL Ans. Tiny, Small, Insignificant
28Idiom – Haul over the coals Ans. To criticize sharply
29Idiom – Take time by the forelock Ans. To seize an opportunity
30One word substitution – A divine force that some people believe controls our lives and in a way protects us (a) Universal (b) Spiritual (c) Providence (d) Metaphysics Ans. Providence
31Fill in the blanks – You must __________ to the rules. Ans. adhere
32Fill in the blanks – An honest person lives by _______________. Ans. the sweat of one’s brows
33Fill in the blanks – A light breeze _________ the forest fire and made it more dangerous. Ans. fend
34Architect : building :: curator:? Ans. Museum
35Injury : helmet :: flood:? Ans. Levee
32Odd one out – Singing, Playing, Writing, Breathing Ans. Breathing (as it is an involuntary activity)
33Odd one out – March, November, August, July Ans. November (only it has 30 days – rest have 31 days)

Answer Keys And Solutions For AFCAT 2 2022 – Shift 2 On 26th August – To Be Updated

Who appoints the members of State Public Service Commission?
Ans. Governor

Which Viceroy was assassinated at Andaman & Nicobar Island?
Ans. Lord Mayo
Lord Mayo, who was the Governor-General of India between 1869 and 1872 was assassinated in the Andaman. He was assassinated by Sher Ali Afridi, an Afghan convict in 1872.

What was the theme of the World Environment Day 2022?
Ans. Only One Earth
#OnlyOneEarth is the campaign for World Environment Day 2022. It calls for collective, transformative action on a global scale to celebrate, protect and restore our planet.

The term ‘Regatta’ is associated with which sports?
Ans. Boat Race or Rowing
Any race with boats, be it rowing boats, motorboats, paddleboard, etc is termed as Regatta.

Which valley has the largest coal deposit in India?
Ans. Damodar River Valley
The coalfield lies in the Damodar River valley and covers about 110 square miles (280 square km). The bituminous coal produced there is suitable for coke (most of India’s coal comes from the Jharia and Raniganj fields in the valley).

What is the capital of Sri Lanka?
Ans. Sri Jayawardenepura Kotte
The current capital of Sri Lanka is Sri Jayawardenepura Kotte.

Which of the following is the shortest wavelength? Ans- Gamma rays < X-rays < Blue light < Red light < Radio waves
Thus gamma ray has the shortest wavelength.

Idioms-
jaundiced eye
Ans- means to look upon something with prejudice, usually in a cynical or negative way.

Synonyms-
Prejudice
Ans- Preconception

Synonym – REPRIMAND
Ans. Scold, Rebuke, Chide

Answer Keys And Solutions For AFCAT 2 2022 – Shift 1 On 27th August – To Be Updated

Answer Keys And Solutions For AFCAT 2 2022 – Shift 2 On 27th August – To Be Updated

Answer Keys And Solutions For AFCAT 2 2022 – Shift 1 On 28th August – To Be Updated

Answer Keys And Solutions For AFCAT 2 2022 – Shift 2 On 28th August – To Be Updated

AFCAT 2 2022 Answer Keys And Solution [Download PDF]

  • AFCAT 2 2022 Answer Keys for Shifts 1 and 2 on August 26th, 2022 [Download PDF]
  • AFCAT 2 2022 Answer Keys for Shifts 1 and 2 on August 27th, 2022 [Download PDF]
  • AFCAT 2 2022 Answer Keys for Shifts 1 and 2 on August 28th, 2022 [Download PDF]

If you are preparing for the AFCAT 1 2023 and AFCAT 2 2023 written exam and SSB interview, you can check SSBCrackExams online courses and mock tests.

AFCAT 2 2022 Original Question Papers 26, 27, 28 August [All Sets]

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AFCAT-2-2022-Question-Papers

An online AFCAT 2 2022 exam is currently being conducted all across the country by the Indian Air Force. On August 26, 27, and 28, 2022, several air force aspirants who are interested in joining the Indian Air Force will take the AFCAT 2 2022 examination online in two separate sessions. The time slots that are available to candidates are listed on the admit card, and they are required to appear at the testing facility in batches. The time to report to work for Shift-1 is 07:30 in the morning, while for Shift-2 it is 12:30 in the afternoon.

We will post the AFCAT 2 2022 question papers for all of the sets in this article. The questions and answers are based on a memory-based question-answer exchange. Contacting SSBCrackExams will allow you to acquire the AFCAT 2 2022 original test questions that were asked during shifts 1 and 2 of the AFCAT 2 2022 examination that took place on the 26th, 27th, and 28th of August.

AFCAT 2 2022 Answer Keys 26 August 2022 – Shift 1 [All Sets] – 12:00 PM [MUST WATCH]

AFCAT 2 2022 Answer Keys 26 August 2022 – Shift 2 [All Sets] – 5:00 PM [MUST WATCH]

The AFCAT 2 2022 Exam will be given on the 26, 27, and 28 of August 2022, and it will last until the 28th of August 2022. There will be a lot of candidates who want to take AFCAT 2 2022. The exam is being given in two shifts, called Shift 1 and Shift 2. Candidates for Shift 1 will take the test between 9:45 and 11:45, and candidates for Shift 2 will take the test between 14:15 and 16:15. EKT will happen from 16:30 to 17:15 during Shift 2. AFCAT 2 2022 original question papers for shifts 1 and 2 can be found on SSBCrackExams.

Note: Questions shared by SSBCrackexams students and followers that are memory-based.

AFCAT 2 2022 Question Paper (All Sets) – To Be Updated

26, 27 and 28 August AFCAT 2 2022 Question Papers [All Sets]Download Link
AFCAT 2 2022 26 August Question Paper Shift 1 by SSBCrackExamsTo Be Updated
AFCAT 2 2022 26 August Question Paper Shift 2 by SSBCrackExamsTo Be Updated
AFCAT 2 2022 27 August Question Paper Shift 1 by SSBCrackExamsTo Be Updated
AFCAT 2 2022 27 August Question Paper Shift 2 by SSBCrackExamsTo Be Updated
AFCAT 2 2022 28 August Question Paper Shift 1 by SSBCrackExamsTo Be Updated
AFCAT 2 2022 28 August Question Paper Shift 2 by SSBCrackExamsTo Be Updated

**NOTE MEMORY-BASED QUESTIONS SHARED BY SSBCRACKEXAMS STUDENTS & FOLLOWERS

Shifts 1 and 2 of the AFCAT 2 2022 Question Paper will be updated on 26th August 2022.

Soon after the test concludes, SSBCrackExams will update the memory-based shift-2 questions for the AFCAT 2 2022 26th August Questions. The AFCAT 2 2022 questions and answer keys are also available to view on our SSBCrackExams App and YouTube page.

Questions and Answers for AFCAT 2 2022 – Shift 1 on 26th August – To Be Updated

Q) ICJ headquarters?
Ans. The Hague: The seat of the Court is at the Peace Palace in The Hague (Netherlands). Of the six principal organs of the United Nations, it is the only one not located in New York (United States of America).

Q) how many hymns are in rig Veda?
Ans. 1028 hymns: The Rig Veda consists of 1028 hymns, organised into ten books known as maṇḍalas.

Q) What is the Motto of the territorial army?
Ans. Savdhani Va Shoorta (Vigilance and Valour)

Q) Which fighter aircraft is able to carry the Brahmos missiles?
Ans. IAF Sukhoi 30 MK-I: Recently Air Version Of BrahMos Supersonic Cruise Missile Was Successfully Test Fired From The Supersonic Fighter Aircraft Sukhoi 30 MK-I

Q) Which river flows from Washington DC?
Ans. The Potomac River

Match the following joint military exercises –
Varuna – France
Indra – Russia
Maitree – Thailand
Garud Shakti – Indonesia

Q) Olympic logo from left to right
Ans. Blue, Yellow, Back, Green, Red

Q) Fact Check Module aims to check what?
Ans. Accuracy

Q) The largest ecosystem of the world
Ans- The World Ocean is the largest existing ecosystem on our planet. Covering over 71% of the Earth’s surface, it’s a source of livelihood for over 3 billion people.


Q) Andher nagari chaupat raja
Ans. Writer is भारतेन्दु हरिश्चंद्र

Q) NASA+ESA + Italian space agency probe to Saturn?
Ans. CASSINI: A joint endeavor of NASA, the European Space Agency, or ESA, and the Italian Space Agency, Cassini

Q) 86th Amendment Act came in-
Ans. 12th December 2002

Q) Instrument used to measure Humidity?
Ans. Hygrometer

Match the instruments with the artists –
Ustad Bismillah Khan – Shehnai
Ustad Vilayat Khan – Sitar
Amjad Ali Khan – Sarod
V G Jog – Violin


Q) Gandhiji presided over which Congress session?
Ans. 1924 Belgaum Session


Q) What is the working principle of the hydrogen bomb?
Ans. Nuclear fusion

Q) Where is the headquarter of United News Agency?
Ans. New Delhi

Match the following
52 Amendment Act- Anti Defection
73rd – Panchayati Rajya
61A amendment Act- 21Year – 18 Year Age Vote
86th Amendment Act- RTE

Q. How many earthquake zones there are in India?
Ans- As per the seismic zoning map of the country, the total area is classified into four seismic zones. Based on historical seismic activity, the Bureau of Indian Standards has categorized regions in India into four seismic zones: zones II, III, IV and V. Of these, the most seismically active area is Zone V and the least active is Zone II.

Q) Which district has received Prime Minister’s Award for Excellence in 2021?
Ans. Datia, Madhya Pradesh

Q) Injury : helmet:: flood:?
Ans. Levee

Q) Architect : building :: curator:?
Ans. Museum

Q) Odd one out – Singing, Playing, Writing, Breathing
Ans. Breathing (as it is an involuntary activity)

Q) Odd one out – March, November, August, July
Ans. November (only it has 30 days – rest have 31 days)

Q) Take time by the forelock
Ans. To seize an opportunity

Synonym of PRECARIOUS
Ans. Uncertain, Insecure, Risky


Synonym of PROPONENT
Ans. Advocate, Supporter, Promoter


Antonym of INTRINSIC
Ans. Extrinsic, Acquired


Antonym of COLOSSAL
Ans. Tiny, Small, Insignificant


Idiom – Haul over the coals
Ans. To criticize sharply

Q) Take time by the forelock
Ans. To seize an opportunity

One word substitution –
A divine force that some people believe controls our lives and in a way protects us
(a) Universal (b) Spiritual (c) Providence (d) Metaphysics
Ans. Providence

Fill in the blanks –
You must __________ to the rules.
Ans. adhere

Fill in the blanks –
An honest person lives by _______________.
Ans. the sweat of one’s brows

Fill in the blanks –
A light breeze _________ the forest fire and made it more dangerous.
Ans. fend

1Where is the Headquarter of ICG? Ans. The Hague, Netherlands The seat of the Court is at the Peace Palace in The Hague (Netherlands). Of the six principal organs of the United Nations, it is the only one not located in New York (United States of America).
2How many hymns are there in Rigveda? Ans. 1028 The Rig Veda consists of 1028 hymns, organised into ten books known as maṇḍalas.
3What is the motto of the Territorial Army? Ans. Savdhani Va Shoorta (Vigilance and Valour)
4Which river flows from Washington DC? Ans. The Potomac River
5Which ​fighter aircraft has the ability to carry Brahmos? Ans. Su-30MKI aircraft
6Fact Check Module aims to check what? Ans. Accuracy
7Match the following joint military exercises – Varuna –  France Indra – Russia Maitree – Thailand Garud Shakti – Indonesia
8Arrange the rings of Olympic logos (left to right direction) – Ans. Blue, Yellow, Black, Green, Red
9What is the largest ecosystem of the earth? Ans. The World Ocean Covering over 71% of the Earth’s surface, it’s a source of livelihood for over 3 billion people.
10What is the light house of the Mediterranean? Ans. Stromboli Volcano
11Who is the author of the play “Andher Nagri Chaupat Raja”? Ans. Bhartendu Harishchandra
12Which instrument is used to measure humidity? Ans. Hygrometer
13What is the name of probe sent to Saturn by NASA, ESA & Italian space agency? Ans. CASSINI
14Match the instruments with the artists – Ustad Bismillah Khan – Shehnai Ustad Vilayat Khan – Sitar Amjad Ali Khan – Sarod V G Jog – Violin
15Gandhiji presided over which Congress session? Ans. 1924 Belgaum Session
16What is the working principle of hydrogen bomb? Ans. Nuclear fusion
17Where is the headquarter of United News Agency? Ans. New Delhi
18Match the following – 52nd Amendment Act – Anti Defection Law 73rd Amendment Act – Panchayati Raj 61st Amendment Act – Voting Age reduced to 18 from 21 years 86th Amendment Act – Right to Education
19Which category aircraft is Tejas? Ans. Light Combat Aircraft
20How many earthquake zones there are in India? Ans. As per the seismic zoning map of the country, the total area is classified into four seismic zones. Based on historical seismic activity, the Bureau of Indian Standards has categorized regions in India into four seismic zones: zones II, III, IV and V. Of these, the most seismically active area is Zone V and the least active is Zone II.
21Which district has received Prime Minister’s Award for Excellence in 2021? Ans. Datia, Madhya Pradesh
22Nusantara is the new capital of which country? Ans. Indonesia It is the future capital of Indonesia set to be inaugurated in August 2024. It will replace Jakarta, the national capital since 1945.
23What is the Motto of the Indian Army? Ans. Service Before Self
24Synonym of PRECARIOUS Ans. Uncertain, Insecure, Risky
25Synonym of PROPONENT Ans. Advocate, Supporter, Promoter
26Antonym of INTRINSIC Ans. Extrinsic, Acquired
27Antonym of COLOSSAL Ans. Tiny, Small, Insignificant
28Idiom – Haul over the coals Ans. To criticize sharply
29Idiom – Take time by the forelock Ans. To seize an opportunity
30One word substitution – A divine force that some people believe controls our lives and in a way protects us (a) Universal (b) Spiritual (c) Providence (d) Metaphysics Ans. Providence
31Fill in the blanks – You must __________ to the rules. Ans. adhere
32Fill in the blanks – An honest person lives by _______________. Ans. the sweat of one’s brows
33Fill in the blanks – A light breeze _________ the forest fire and made it more dangerous. Ans. fend
34Architect : building :: curator:? Ans. Museum
35Injury : helmet :: flood:? Ans. Levee
32Odd one out – Singing, Playing, Writing, Breathing Ans. Breathing (as it is an involuntary activity)
33Odd one out – March, November, August, July Ans. November (only it has 30 days – rest have 31 days)

Questions and Answers for AFCAT 2 2022 – Shift 2 on 26th August – To Be Updated

Who appoints the members of State Public Service Commission?
Ans. Governor

Which Viceroy was assassinated at Andaman & Nicobar Island?
Ans. Lord Mayo
Lord Mayo, who was the Governor-General of India between 1869 and 1872 was assassinated in the Andaman. He was assassinated by Sher Ali Afridi, an Afghan convict in 1872.

What was the theme of the World Environment Day 2022?
Ans. Only One Earth
#OnlyOneEarth is the campaign for World Environment Day 2022. It calls for collective, transformative action on a global scale to celebrate, protect and restore our planet.

The term ‘Regatta’ is associated with which sports?
Ans. Boat Race or Rowing
Any race with boats, be it rowing boats, motorboats, paddleboard, etc is termed as Regatta.

Which valley has the largest coal deposit in India?
Ans. Damodar River Valley
The coalfield lies in the Damodar River valley and covers about 110 square miles (280 square km). The bituminous coal produced there is suitable for coke (most of India’s coal comes from the Jharia and Raniganj fields in the valley).

What is the capital of Sri Lanka?
Ans. Sri Jayawardenepura Kotte
The current capital of Sri Lanka is Sri Jayawardenepura Kotte.

Which of the following is the shortest wavelength? Ans- Gamma rays < X-rays < Blue light < Red light < Radio waves
Thus gamma ray has the shortest wavelength.

Idioms-
jaundiced eye
Ans- means to look upon something with prejudice, usually in a cynical or negative way.

Synonyms-
Prejudice
Ans- Preconception

Synonym – REPRIMAND
Ans. Scold, Rebuke, Chide

Questions and Answers for AFCAT 2 2022 – Shift 1 on 27th August – To Be Updated

Questions and Answers for AFCAT 2 2022 – Shift 2 on 27th August – To Be Updated

Questions and Answers for AFCAT 2 2022 – Shift 1 on 28th August – To Be Updated

Questions and Answers for AFCAT 2 2022 – Shift 2 on 28th August – To Be Updated

AFCAT 2 2022 Question Paper [Download PDF]

  • AFCAT 2 2022 Question Paper for Shifts 1 and 2 on August 26th, 2022 [Download PDF]
  • AFCAT 2 2022 Question Paper for Shifts 1 and 2 on August 27th, 2022 [Download PDF]
  • AFCAT 2 2022 Question Paper for Shifts 1 and 2 on August 28th, 2022 [Download PDF]

If you are preparing for the AFCAT 1 2023 and AFCAT 2 2023 written exam and SSB interview, you can check SSBCrackExams online courses and mock tests.

New Cut-Off, Marking & Normalisation Scheme For AFCAT 2 2022 Exam

1. The marking scheme is as follows:-
(a) Three marks will be awarded for every correct answer.
(b) One mark will be deducted for every incorrect answer.
(c) No marks for unattempted questions.

2. In order to rationalise the marks scored by candidates appearing in different shifts in an objective manner through a statistical method, Normalisation Scheme is being implemented as per the following formula:-

afcat 2 2022 cut off marks normalisation

3. The same normalisation formula is used by the Ministry of Personal, Public Grievance & Pensions as well as Staff Selection Commission and Railway Recruitment Board.

Exam Schedule And Date For AFCAT 2 2022 Exam

The AFCAT (and EKT) will be conducted in three days as per the following schedule:

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Selection Procedure For AFCAT 2 2022 Exam

  • The AFCAT online examination will be given by the Indian Air Force at several test sites throughout the nation. The AFCAT 2 2022 online exam will be held on August 26, 27 and 28.
  • The IAF will release the AFCAT 2 2022 results in March 2022, and candidates can view their scores, qualifying scores, and other information on the official website, afcat.cdac.in.
  • The same platform is used by selected candidates to select the location and date of their AFSB interview.
  • The screening test, which consists of verbal, nonverbal, and a PPDT test, is the initial phase of the interview. The chosen candidates will remain at the centres for additional testing, and those who failed it will be released that same day.
  • The next phase entails a personal interview, psychological and GTO tests, a PABT (for only flying), and a conference on the penultimate day, following which the final outcome is declared. The chosen candidates are given a medical exam.

New Syllabus For AFCAT 2 2022

(aa) English. Comprehension, Detect Error in Sentence, Sentence Completion/ Filling in of correct word, Synonym/ Antonym, Cloze Test or Fill in the Gaps in a paragraph, Idioms and Phrases, Analogy, Sentence Rearranging, Substitution in a Sentence/ One Word Substitution.

(ab) General Awareness. History, Geography, Sports, National & International Organisations, Art & Culture, Personalities, Environment & Ecology, Indian Polity, Economy, Basic Science Based Knowledge, Science & Technology, Current Affairs (National & International), Defence.

(ac) Numerical Ability. Decimal Fraction, Time and Work, Average/ Percentage, Profit & Loss, Ratio & Proportion, Simple and Compound Interest, Time & Distance and Races (Trains/ Boats & Streams), Area and Perimeter, Probability, Number System & Number Series, Mixture & Allegation Rules, Clocks.

(ad) Reasoning and Military Aptitude Test. Verbal and Non-Verbal Reasoning

Standard Of Questions. The standard of Numerical Ability Questions will be of Matriculation level. The standard of questions in other subjects will be of graduation level (Indian University).

Exam Pattern, Marking Scheme For AFCAT 2 2022 Exam

Exam NameAFCAT – Air Force Common Admission TestEKT Engineering Knowledge Test
Exam ModeComputer-Based (Online)Computer-Based (Online)
Total Questions10050
Maximum Marks300150
Exam Duration2 hours (120 minutes)45 minutes
SubjectsGeneral Awareness, Verbal Ability in English, Numerical Ability and Reasoning and Military Aptitude TestMechanical, Computer Science and Electrical & Electronics
Negative Marking1 mark1 mark

The AFCAT 2023 Exam is a Must If You Want to Join the Indian Air Force.

Also Read:

AFCAT 2 2022 Complete Exam Schedule and Shift Timings

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The Chief of Army Staff, General Bipin Rawat presenting wings to the officers of Flying branch, at the Combined Graduation Parade at Air Force Academy, Dundigal, in Hyderabad on June 17, 2017.

Check AFCAT 2 2022 shift timings, exam dates and exam timings. As per the official notification of AFCAT 2 2022 published on 01 June 2022, AFCAT 2 2022 online written exam will be conducted on 26 Aug 22, 27 Aug 22, and 28 Aug 2022. Candidates will get their AFCAT exam date from one of these three dates. Each day there will be two shifts i.e. 1st shift and 2nd shift. Reporting time for Shift-1 is 07:30 hours and for Shift-2 it is 12:30 hours. Below you can check the details AFCAT 2 2022 shift timings for shift 1 and 2. Both AFCAT and EKT 2022 exam timings are given below in detail.

AFCAT Question Papers

If you are preparing for the AFCAT 1 2022 written exam and SSB interview, you can check SSBCrackExams online courses and mock tests.

AFCAT Scheme of Online Examination

All applicants whose applications are submitted by due date will be called for AFCAT at one of the examination centers on either 26 Aug 22 (Friday), 27 Aug 22 (Saturday) and 27 Aug 22 (Sunday). It is mandatory for the candidates opting for Ground Duty (Technical) branch to appear in both AFCAT as well as Engineering Knowledge Test (EKT).

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AFCAT 2 2022 Exam Schedule and Date

The AFCAT (and EKT) will be conducted in three days as per the following schedule:

image

Candidates will not be permitted to enter the exam centre, under any circumstance, after the pre-exam verification process has commenced at 07:30 hrs for shift-I and 12:30 hrs for shift-II.

AFCAT Syllabus

The subjects, the time allowed and the maximum marks allotted to each subject will be as follow:

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The Online examination will consist of objective type questions and will be in English only for both AFCAT and EKT.

Marking Scheme is as follows:-
(aa) Three marks will be awarded for every correct answer.
(ab) One mark will be deducted for every incorrect answer.
(ac) No marks for unattempted questions.

Standard and Syllabus of the Examination:

(aa) English. Comprehension, Error Detection, Sentence Completion/Filling in of correct word, Synonyms, Antonyms and Testing of Vocabulary,Idioms and Phrases.


(ab) General Awareness. History, Geography, Civics, Politics, CurrentAffairs, Environment, Basic Science, Defence, Art, Culture, Sports, etc

(ac) Numerical Ability. Decimal Fraction, Time and Work, Average, Profit & Loss, Percentage, Ratio & Proportion and Simple Interest, Time & Distance (Trains/Boats & Streams).

(ad) Reasoning and Military Aptitude Test.Verbal Skills and Spatial Ability.

If you are preparing for the AFCAT 1 2022 written exam and SSB interview, you can check SSBCrackExams online courses and mock tests.

JAG 30 Recruitment Judge Advocate General Notification Indian Army

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Indian Army is going to publish the JAG 30 i.e. Judge Advocate General 30th Course notification soon on their official website. All male and female law graduates who are eligible for this entry can apply for this special entry. Find more details related to the 30th Short Service Commission JAG Entry Scheme Course (Men and Women) April 2023 course for law graduates.

Indian army’s official career website will publish JAG Course 30 Notification on 24 August 2022 and registration will be open from 24 August 2022 onward, the last date to apply for the JAG 30 is 24th August 2022. JAG 30th course JAG entry 2022 (Judge Advocate General Branch) will commence in April 2023 at OTA Chennai. It is a special entry for male and female law graduates to join the JAG branch of the Indian Army.

JAG 30 Notification Judge Advocate General Branch

JAG 30 EventsDates
JAG 30 Special Entry Scheme Application Start Date24 August 2022
JAG 30 Special Entry Scheme Application Last Date22 September 2022
JAG 30 Special Entry Scheme SSB DateOct-Nov 2022
JAG 30 Special Entry Scheme Merit ListMarch- April 2023
JAG 30 Special Entry Scheme Joining DateApril 2023
JAG 30 Special Entry Scheme SSB CoachingJoin SSB Coaching
JAG 30 Special Entry Scheme SSB BooksGet SSB Book
JAG 30 Special Entry Scheme Job PostArmy Officer
JAG 30 Special Entry Scheme Vacancies50+ Vacancies
JAG 30 Special Entry Scheme Salary/ Pay ScaleRs. 56100/- to 177500/- (Level-10)
JAG 30 Special Entry Scheme Mode of ApplyOnline
JAG 30 Special Entry Scheme Official Websitejoinindianarmy.nic.in
JAG 30 Special Entry Scheme Notification PDFWill Be Updated
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JAG 30 Notification 2022

Applications are invited from unmarried male and unmarried female LAW GRADUATES for grant of Short Service Commission in the Indian Army for the Judge Advocate General Branch.

Nationality: A candidate must either be: (i) A citizen of India, or (ii) A subject of Nepal, (iii) A person of Indian origin who has migrated from Pakistan, Burma, Sri Lanka and East African countries of Kenya, Uganda, United Republic of Tanzania, Zambia, Malawi, Zaire and Ethiopia and Vietnam with the intention of permanently settling in India, provided that a candidate belonging to categories (ii) and (iii) above shall be a person in whose favour a certificate of eligibility has been issued by the Government of India. Certificate of eligibility will, however, not be necessary in the case of candidates who are Gorkha subjects of Nepal.

Enroll NowSSB Interview Online Course

JAG officer at OTA Chennai
Indian Army JAG Officer Commissioned at OTA Chennai

Judge Advocate General JAG 30 Age Limit

  • 21 to 27 years as of 01 Jan 2023 (Born not earlier than 02 Jan 1996 and not later than 01 Jan 2002; both dates inclusive).

Note: Candidates should note that the date of birth as recorded in the Matriculation/Secondary School Examination Certificate or an equivalent certificate on the date of submission of applications will only be accepted and no subsequent request for its change will be considered or granted.

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JAG 30 Educational Qualification

  • Minimum 55% aggregate marks in LLB Degree (three years professional after graduation or five years after 10+2 examination).
  • The candidates should be eligible for registration as advocates with the Bar Council of India/State. The candidate should be from a College/University recognized by the Bar Council of India.

JAG 30 Vacancies

  • Correct vacancies for the JAG 30 will be published on 24th August 2022.

Tenure of Engagement

Short Service Commission will be granted to Male and Female in the regular Army for 14 years i.e. for an initial period of 10 years extendable by a further period of 04 years. Male & Female officers who are willing to continue to serve in the Army after the expiry of period of ten years of Short Service Commission may, if eligible and suitable in all respects, be considered for the grant of Permanent Commission (PC) in the 10th year of their Short Service Commission in accordance with the relevant policies as issued from time to time. Those SSC officers (Male & Female) who are not selected for grant of PC but are otherwise considered fit and suitable, will be given options to continue as SSCOs for a total period of 14 years (including the initial tenure of 10 years) on expiry of which they will be released from the Army.

Period of Probation: An officer will be on probation for a period of 6 months from the date he/she receives his/her commission. If he/she is reported on within the probationary period as unsuitable to retain his/her commission, his/her services may be terminated any time whether before or after the expiry of the probationary period.

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JAG 30 Training

The duration of training is 49 weeks at OTA, Chennai.

  • Selected candidates will be detailed for Pre-Commission training at OTA, Chennai according to their position in the final order of merit, up to the number of available vacancies, subject to meeting all eligibility criteria.
  • Candidates will neither be allowed to marry during the period of training nor will he/she be allowed to live with parents/Guardians. Candidates must not marry until they complete the full training at the Officers Training Academy. A candidate, who marries subsequent to the date of his/her application, though successful at the Services Selection Board interview and medical examination, will not be eligible for training. A candidate if he/she marries, while under training, shall be discharged and will be liable to refund all expenditure incurred on him/her by the government.
  • All candidates who successfully complete Pre-Commission training at Officers Training Academy, Chennai will be awarded ‘Post Graduate Diploma in Defence Management and Strategic Studies’ by University of Madras

Fixed Stipend for Cadet Training: ₹ 56,100/-p.m.*

*On successful commissioning, the pay in the Pay Matrix of the Officer commissioned shall be fixed in the first Cell of Level 10. The period of training shall not be treated as commissioned service. Arrears on account of admissible allowances, as applicable, for the training period shall be paid to cadets.

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How to apply for JAG 30

  1. Applications will only be accepted online on website www.joinindianarmy.nic.in. Click on ‘Officer Entry Appln/Login’ and then click ‘Registration’ (Registrations not required, if already registered on www.joinindianarmy.nic.in).
  2. Fill the online registration form after reading the instructions carefully. After getting registered, click on ‘Apply Online’ under Dashboard. A page ‘Officers Selection – ‘Eligibility’ will open. Then click ‘Apply’ shown against Short Service Commission JAG Entry Course.
  3. A page ‘Application Form’ will open. Read the instructions carefully and click ‘Continue’ to fill details as required under various segments. Personal information, Communication details, Education details and details of previous SSB.
  4. ‘Save & Continue’ each time before you go to the next segment. After filling details on the last segment, you will move to a page ‘Summary of your information’ wherein you can check and edit the entries already made.
  5. Only after ascertaining the correctness of all your details, click on ‘Submit Now’. Candidates must click on ‘Submit Now’ each time they open the application for editing any details.
  6. The candidates are required to take out two copies of their application having Roll Number, 30 minutes after final closure of online application on last day.
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JAG 30 Selection Procedure

  • Shortlisting of Applications. Integrated HQ of MoD (Army) reserves the right for shortlisting of applications, without assigning any reason. After shortlisting of applications, the Centre allotment will be intimated to candidates via their email.
  • After allotment of Selection Centre, candidates will have to log in to the website and select their SSB dates which are available on a first come first serve basis initially.
  • Thereafter, it will be allotted by the Selection Centres. The option to select the dates for SSB by candidates may be forfeited due to occurrence of any exceptional circumstance/events.
  • Only shortlisted eligible candidates will undergo SSB at Selection Centres, Allahabad(UP), Bhopal(MP), Bangalore (Karnataka) and Kapurthala (PB).
  • Call up letter for SSB interview will be issued by respective Selection Centre on candidate’s registered e-mail id and SMS only.
  • Allotment of Selection Centre is at the discretion of Directorate General of Recruiting, IHQ of MoD (Army) and No request for changes will be entertained in this regard.
  • Candidates will be put through two stage selection procedure. Those who clear Stage I will go to Stage II. Those who fail in stage I will be returned on the same day.
  • Duration of SSB interview is five days and details of the same are available on official website of Directorate General of Recruiting i.e, www.joinindianarmy.nic.in.
  • This will be followed by a medical examination for the candidates who get recommended after Stage II.

Candidates recommended by the SSB and declared medically fit will be issued a joining letter for training in the order of merit, depending on the number of vacancies available, subject to meeting all eligibility criteria.

Short Service Commission (NT) JAG Entry Scheme 30th Course for Men & Women Law Graduates (scheduled in April 2023). Applications are open from 24 August to 22 September 2022.

Enroll NowSSB Interview Online Course

Note: Candidates are suggested to wait for the official notification for more details. The above-mentioned details may or may not change. For detailed information visit joinindianarmy.nic.in

To crack the Indian Army JAG 30 Entry Course SSB Interview, You can join our SSB interview live classes batch and we recommend you to Enroll SSB INTERVIEW ONLINE COURSE. Trusted by thousands of defence aspirants.

JAG Entry Frequently Asked Questions

What is the age limit for the Indian Army JAG 30 Recruitment 2022?

21 to 27 years as of 01 Jan 2023 (Born not earlier than 02 Jan 1996 and not later than 01 Jan 2002; both dates inclusive).

Who can apply for the JAG entry?

Unmarried male and unmarried female LAW GRADUATES can apply for JAG entry.

IAF fires 3 officers for launching a missile inadvertently into Pakistan

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IAF-Sacks-3-Officers-for-BrahMos-Misfire

The Indian Air Force has dismissed three officers who were largely deemed accountable for the March 9, 2022 BrahMos missile misfiring incident. The missile had landed inside Pakistan.

It added that termination orders had been served on the officers on Tuesday and that Central Government had immediately terminated their services.

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The missile was accidentally fired, according to an update provided by the Indian Air Force, as a result of three officers deviating from the Standard Operating Procedures (SOP). Soon after the incident, a court of inquiry was established to determine the facts of the case, including assigning blame for the incident.

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Indian Army TES 48 10+2 Technical Entry Scheme Notification [Apply Now]

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Online applications are now being accepted for the TES (10+2) Entry-48 course (January 2023) and will be available on joinindianarmy.nic.in from 22 August to 21 September 2022. JEE Mains 2022 is now a requirement for the TES 48 entry. In addition, you must have received at least 60% in PCM (Physics, Chemistry, and Mathematics) in your 12th-grade class.

TES 48 Notification 10+2 TECHNICAL ENTRY SCHEME 48 January 2023 Course. Indian army is going to publish the TES 48 notification on 22nd August 2022 for the candidates who have completed the 12th standard with PCM with an aggregate of 60%. 

TES 48 Online applications will open on 22th Aug 2022. Applications are invited from unmarried Male Candidates who have passed 10+2 examination with Physics, Chemistry and Mathematics (Hereinafter referred to as PCM) subjects and fulfill the eligibility conditions prescribed in the subsequent paragraphs, for the grant of Permanent Commission in the Army after four years of Basic Military Training and Technical Training thereafter with the terms and conditions given in the succeeding paragraphs.

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EventsDates
TES 48 Registration Date22 Aug 2022
TES 48 Closing Date21 September 2022
TES 48 Final Cut off marks (for SSB interview)Anywhere from 78%-85%
TES 48 SSB Datesfrom Oct 2022
TES 48 Merit ListDec 2022
TES 48 Course JoiningJan 2023
TES 48 SSB Interview Online CourseSSB Interview Online Course
TES 48 SSB Interview Online CoachingSSB Interview Online Coaching
Read official notificationTES 48 PDF

TES 48 Age Limit: A candidate must not be below 16½ years and above 19½ years on the first day of the month in which the course is due to commence i.e. the candidate should not be born before 02 Jul 2003 and not after 01 Jul 2006 (both days inclusive).

TES 48 Educational Qualification: Only those candidates who have passed 10+2 Examination or its equivalent with a minimum aggregate of 60% marks in Physics, Chemistry and Mathematics from recognized education boards are eligible to apply for this entry. Eligibility condition for calculating PCM percentage of various state /central boards will be based on marks obtained in Class XII only. Candidate must have appeared in JEE (Mains) 2022.

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TES 48 Vacancies: 90. The Vacancies are provisional and can be changed depending on the training capacity at the Training Academy for this course. The vacancies are subject to increase/decrease keeping the organizational requirement at the point of time.

Training

  • Basic Military Training: 1 year (Officer Training Academy Gaya).
  • Technical Training: (i) Phase-I (Pre Commission Training): 3 Years (CME Pune or MCTE Mhow or MCEME Secunderabad), (ii) Phase-II (Post Commission Training): 1 year at CME Pune or MCTE Mhow or MCEME Secunderabad.
  • Award of Degree: The candidates will be awarded Engineering degree after successful completion of the final examination. No ante date will be admissible to candidates on account of this Engineering degree. During the last two semesters, the officers will be permitted only one relegation on academic grounds. This relegation will be within the maximum two relegations permitted on academic grounds in the entire Engineering degree (8 semesters) in accordance with JNU Ordinance. Any further relegation of the officer on academic grounds will lead to termination of his commission.
  • Type of Commission: On successful completion of 4 years of the course, cadets will be granted Permanent Commission in the Army in the rank of Lt.
  • Seniority: They will be granted seniority on overall order of merit of the three technical institutes combined i.e. CME, MCTE, MCEME and in case the date of commissioning coincides with that of IMA, Dehradun, they will be placed en-block junior to IMA (NDA/ ACC / DE Course ) but above TGC / UES course.
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Salary/Pay

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Fixed Stipend for Cadet Trainng: The gentlemen cadets will be given a stipend of ₹ 56,100/-p.m.* as is admissible to NDA cadets on completion of 3 years training. On completion of 4 years training, they will be commissioned in the rank of Lt and entitled to pay as admissible to the rank.

How to Apply: Application will only be accepted online. To do so the candidate needs to click on the ‘online application’ button on website www.joinindianarmy.nic.in.

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Selection Procedure

  • Shortlisting of Applications. Integrated HQ of MoD (Army) reserves the right to shortlist applications based on cut off percentage applied as decided. After shortlisting of candidates, the Centre allotment will be intimated to the candidate online. After allotment of Selection Centre, candidates will have to log in to the website and select their SSB dates on a first come first serve basis.
  • Only shortlisted eligible candidates depending on the cutoff percentage will undergo SSB at one of the Selection Centres i.e, Allahabad (UP), Bhopal (MP), Bengaluru (Karnataka) or Kapurthala (Punjab) by Psychologist, Group Testing Officer and Interviewing Officer. Call Up letter for SSB interview will be issued by respective Selection Centres on candidate’s registered e-mail ID and SMS only. Allotment of Selection Centre is at the discretion of Directorate General of Recruiting, Integrated Headquarters of MoD (Army) and NO request for changes are entertained in this regard.
  • Candidates will be put through two stage selection procedure. Those who clear Stage I will go to Stage II. Those who fail in Stage I will be returned on the same day. Duration of SSB interview is five days and details of the same are available at the official website of Directorate General of Recruiting www.joinindianarmy.nic.in. This will be followed by a medical examination for the candidates who get recommended after Stage II.
  • In the eventuality of being recommended by SSB, candidate should have no objection for undergoing medical examination by board of Male/Female doctors.
  • Candidates recommended by the SSB and declared medically fit, will be issued joining letter for training in the order of merit, depending on the number of vacancies available.
  • The finally selected candidates will execute all the Bonds/Certificates as prescribed for the Cadets of NDA entry under AI 53/78.
  • The candidate will not have any objection in the event of final selection, on allotment of any Arm/Service in the interest of organisation.

For SSB interview, print out of online application must be accompanied by original documents along with two sets of self attested photocopies i.e. 10th class certificate issued by the Board concerned (CBSE/ State Boards/lCSE) in which date of birth is reflected for proof of date of birth (Admit card/Mark sheet/Transfer/Leaving Certificate etc. are not acceptable as proof of date of birth) and 10+2 certificate and mark sheet for proof of education and a copy of result of JEE (Mains) 2022. Revised mark sheets issued by a Board/University after last date of submitting online application will not be accepted for this course. Shortlisted candidates will be detailed to undergo SSB interview from Oct 2022 onwards.

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PROCEDURE FOR COMMON CANDIDATES : TES & NDA ENTRY

  • The candidates who apply for 10+2 Technical Entry Scheme (TES) and National Defence Academy (NDA & NA) parallel courses need to undergo a medical examination by a Board of Service Medical Officers for the entries recommended.
  • Those candidates who are recommended for TES prior to their NDA SSB will have to undergo medical for TES and NDA (AF and Navy) separately.
  • If only NDA Army is their preference these TES candidates need not undergo NDA medical again. The NDA medical examination will begin only after the candidate is declared FIT in TES medicals.
  • The candidates who are recommended in NDA prior to SSB for TES need not undergo medical for TES separately. The Medical Status for TES (10+2) will be same as NDA (Army) medical examination. A candidate declared UNFIT in NDA will be considered UNFIT for TES as well.
  • If the candidate is found UNFIT/ UNFIT IN ABSENTIA at any stage of medical examination in any entry i.e. TES or NDA & NA parallel courses he will be declared UNFIT for both the entries and no representation will be accepted thereafter.

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MERIT LIST: IT MUST BE NOTED THAT MERE QUALIFYING AT THE SSB INTERVIEW DOES NOT CONFIRM FINAL SELECTION. MERIT WILL BE PREPARED ON THE BASIS OF MARKS OBTAINED BY THE CANDIDATE AT SSB INTERVIEW. HIGHER EDUCATIONAL QUALIFICATIONS, PREVIOUS PERFORMANCES, NCC BACKGROUND ETC. HAVE NO ROLE TO PLAY FOR FINALIZATION OF MERIT LIST. JOINING LETTERS TO JOIN PRE-COMMISSION TRAINING AT OTA, GAYA WILL ONLY BE ISSUED SUBJECT TO VACANCIES AND MEDICAL FITNESS.

To crack the Indian Army TES 48 Entry Course SSB Interview, You can join our SSB interview live classes batch and we recommend you to Enroll SSB INTERVIEW ONLINE COURSE. Trusted by thousands of defence aspirants.